Nursing Elites

1. An adult client undergoes various diagnostic tests to determine the pumping ability of the heart. The nurse notes that the results of these tests indicate that the client's cardiac output is 5 L/min. The nurse makes which conclusion?

• A. The client has a low cardiac output.
• B. The client has a high cardiac output.
• C. The client has a normal cardiac output.
• D. The client will need a blood transfusion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A cardiac output of 5 L/min falls within the normal range for a resting adult, which typically ranges between 4 and 6 L/min. Cardiac output is calculated as the stroke volume (volume of blood in each systole) multiplied by the heart rate. Therefore, a cardiac output of 5 L/min is considered normal. Choices A and B are incorrect as they misinterpret the result as either low or high, which is not the case based on the provided information. Choice D is unrelated to the client's cardiac output and thus incorrect.

2. To improve overall health, the nurse should place the highest priority on assisting a client to make lifestyle changes for which of the following habits?

• A. drinking a six-pack of beer each day
• B. eating an occasional chocolate bar
• C. exercising twice a week
• D. using relaxation exercises to deal with stress

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To improve overall health, the nurse should prioritize assisting the client in making lifestyle changes that have the most significant impact on health. Drinking a six-pack of beer each day can have serious negative effects on health, including liver damage, increased risk of chronic diseases, and addiction. By addressing this habit first, the nurse can make a substantial positive difference in the client's health. Eating an occasional chocolate bar, exercising twice a week, and using relaxation exercises to deal with stress are beneficial habits, but they are not as detrimental to health as excessive alcohol consumption. Therefore, they are not the highest priority for immediate lifestyle changes to improve health.

3. A nurse notes that a client's physical examination record states that the client's eyes moved normally through the six cardinal fields of gaze. The nurse interprets this to mean that which aspect of eye function is normal?

• A. Near vision
• B. Central vision
• C. Peripheral vision
• D. Ocular movements

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ocular movements.' Moving the eyes through the six cardinal fields of gaze evaluates the function of the eye muscles, such as the medial rectus muscle, superior rectus muscle, superior oblique muscle, lateral rectus muscle, inferior rectus muscle, and inferior oblique muscle. Normal movement in these fields indicates proper ocular movements. Near vision is assessed using a handheld vision screener, central vision with a Snellen chart, and peripheral vision through the confrontation test. Therefore, the evaluation of ocular movements through the six cardinal fields of gaze specifically assesses this aspect of eye function. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they pertain to different aspects of vision function that are evaluated using distinct assessment methods, not through the six cardinal fields of gaze.

4. A nurse is preparing to auscultate for the presence of bowel sounds in a client who has just undergone surgery. The nurse places the stethoscope in which abdominal quadrant first?

• A. Left upper quadrant
• B. Left lower quadrant
• C. Right upper quadrant
• D. Right lower quadrant

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the right lower quadrant. The nurse starts auscultating in this quadrant at the ileocecal valve as bowel sounds are normally always present there. Then, the nurse proceeds to listen for bowel sounds in the other quadrants. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the initial placement of the stethoscope should be in the right lower quadrant to assess bowel sounds post-surgery.

5. Which of the following vaccines is not part of the regular schedule of immunizations for children?

• A. DTaP
• B. MMR
• C. Hib
• D. hepatitis A

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is hepatitis A. DTaP, MMR, and Hib are all part of the regular schedule of immunizations for children to protect them against diseases like diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, measles, mumps, rubella, and Haemophilus influenzae type b. Hepatitis A vaccine is not included in the routine childhood immunization schedule but may be recommended in certain situations or regions where the disease is more prevalent. Hepatitis A is generally considered an optional vaccine for children but can be administered based on specific risk factors or regional guidelines.

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