Nursing Elites

1. An adult client undergoes various diagnostic tests to determine the pumping ability of the heart. The nurse notes that the results of these tests indicate that the client's cardiac output is 5 L/min. The nurse makes which conclusion?

• A. The client has a low cardiac output.
• B. The client has a high cardiac output.
• C. The client has a normal cardiac output.
• D. The client will need a blood transfusion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A cardiac output of 5 L/min falls within the normal range for a resting adult, which typically ranges between 4 and 6 L/min. Cardiac output is calculated as the stroke volume (volume of blood in each systole) multiplied by the heart rate. Therefore, a cardiac output of 5 L/min is considered normal. Choices A and B are incorrect as they misinterpret the result as either low or high, which is not the case based on the provided information. Choice D is unrelated to the client's cardiac output and thus incorrect.

2. Which of the following is not a nursing responsibility when preparing the client for central line insertion?

• A. advancing the guidewire
• B. explaining the procedure to the client
• C. maintaining sterile technique
• D. ensuring necessary consents are signed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing a client for central line insertion, nursing responsibilities include explaining the procedure to the client, ensuring necessary consents are signed according to the facility policy, and maintaining sterile technique when preparing the equipment and supplies. Advancing the guidewire is typically performed by the practitioner inserting the central line, not the nurse. It requires specialized training and expertise beyond the scope of nursing practice. Therefore, the correct answer is advancing the guidewire. Option A is the correct answer because it delineates an activity that is not within the usual scope of nursing practice during central line insertion preparation. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they reflect essential nursing responsibilities in this context.

3. An amniocentesis is scheduled for a pregnant client in the third trimester. The nurse informs the client that the most common indication for amniocentesis during the third trimester is for which reason?

• A. Determination of whether alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is present in the amniotic fluid
• B. Checking the amniotic fluid for intrauterine infection
• C. Determination of fetal lung maturity
• D. Checking the fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most common indication for amniocentesis in the third trimester is the determination of fetal lung maturity. This assessment is essential to evaluate the fetus's readiness for extrauterine life. Checking for alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid is more commonly associated with midtrimester amniocentesis to identify chromosomal abnormalities. Assessing for intrauterine infection is not a primary reason for amniocentesis in the third trimester. While checking fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities is a common indication for midtrimester amniocentesis, it is not the most common indication in the third trimester.

4. Which of the following foods is a complete protein?

• A. corn
• B. eggs
• C. peanuts
• D. sunflower seeds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'eggs.' Eggs are considered a complete protein as they contain all nine essential amino acids required by the body. On the other hand, corn, peanuts, and sunflower seeds are incomplete proteins, meaning they lack one or more of the essential amino acids needed by the body for optimal health. Corn, peanuts, and sunflower seeds are plant-based proteins that are deficient in one or more essential amino acids, unlike eggs, which are a high-quality complete protein source.

5. A woman in labor whose cervix is not completely dilated is pushing strenuously during contractions. Which method of breathing should the nurse encourage the woman to perform to help her overcome the urge to push?

• A. Holding her breath and using the Valsalva maneuver
• B. Blowing repeatedly in short puffs
• C. Cleansing breaths
• D. Deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end, respectively, of each contraction

Correct answer: B

Rationale: If a woman pushes strenuously before the cervix is completely dilated, she risks injury to the cervix and the fetal head. Blowing prevents closure of the glottis and breath-holding, helping overcome the urge to push strenuously. The woman would be encouraged to blow repeatedly, using short puffs, when the urge to push is strong. This breathing technique allows for controlled exhalation and helps prevent unnecessary pushing. Cleansing breaths (deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end of each contraction) are encouraged during the first stage of labor to provide oxygenation and reduce myometrial hypoxia and to promote relaxation. Holding her breath and using the Valsalva maneuver (choice A) is not recommended as it can increase intra-abdominal pressure and decrease venous return, potentially compromising fetal oxygenation. Deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end of each contraction (choice D) are more suitable for relaxation and oxygenation purposes rather than managing the urge to push.

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