Nursing Elites

1. An adult client undergoes various diagnostic tests to determine the pumping ability of the heart. The nurse notes that the results of these tests indicate that the client's cardiac output is 5 L/min. The nurse makes which conclusion?

• A. The client has a low cardiac output.
• B. The client has a high cardiac output.
• C. The client has a normal cardiac output.
• D. The client will need a blood transfusion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A cardiac output of 5 L/min falls within the normal range for a resting adult, which typically ranges between 4 and 6 L/min. Cardiac output is calculated as the stroke volume (volume of blood in each systole) multiplied by the heart rate. Therefore, a cardiac output of 5 L/min is considered normal. Choices A and B are incorrect as they misinterpret the result as either low or high, which is not the case based on the provided information. Choice D is unrelated to the client's cardiac output and thus incorrect.

2. A nurse is preparing to assess the dorsalis pedis pulse. The nurse palpates this pulse by placing the fingertips in which location?

• A. Behind the knee
• B. Lateral to the extensor tendon of the big toe
• C. In the groove between the malleolus and the Achilles tendon
• D. Below the inguinal ligament, halfway between the pubis and the anterior superior iliac spines

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct location to palpate the dorsalis pedis pulse is lateral to and parallel with the extensor tendon of the big toe. Choices A, C, and D describe the locations for other pulses - popliteal, posterior tibial, and femoral artery respectively. The popliteal pulse is found behind the knee, the posterior tibial pulse is located in the groove between the malleolus and the Achilles tendon, and the femoral artery is situated below the inguinal ligament, halfway between the pubis and the anterior superior iliac spines.

3. A nurse is trying to motivate a client toward more effective management of a therapeutic regimen. Which of the following actions by the nurse is most likely to be effective in increasing the client's motivation?

• A. determining if the client has any family or friends living nearby
• B. developing a concise discharge plan and reviewing it with the client
• C. teaching the client about the disorder at the client's level of understanding
• D. making a referral to an area agency for client follow-up

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To effectively motivate the client, it is important to educate them about the disorder at their level of understanding. This helps the client comprehend the importance of the therapeutic regimen and empowers them to actively participate in their treatment. Choice A, determining if the client has any family or friends living nearby, may provide social support but is less likely to directly impact the client's motivation compared to educating them about their condition. Developing a concise discharge plan, as in choice B, is crucial for continuity of care but may not directly enhance the client's motivation as effectively as providing education tailored to their level of understanding. Making a referral for follow-up, as in choice D, is important for ongoing care but may not have the same immediate impact on the client's motivation as educating them about their condition.

4. What is a chemical reaction between drugs before their administration or absorption known as?

• A. a drug incompatibility
• B. a side effect
• C. an adverse event
• D. an allergic response

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A chemical reaction between drugs before their administration or absorption is termed a drug incompatibility. This phenomenon commonly occurs when drug solutions are mixed before intravenous administration but can also happen with orally administered drugs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because side effects, adverse events, and allergic responses typically occur after the drugs have been administered and absorbed, not before.

5. A woman is receiving oxytocin to induce labor. Which action should the nurse take first upon noting the presence of late decelerations on the fetal heart rate (FHR) monitor?

• A. Notifying the healthcare provider
• B. Stopping the oxytocin infusion
• C. Checking the woman's blood pressure and pulse
• D. Increasing the intravenous (IV) rate of the nonadditive solution

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When late decelerations are noted on the fetal heart rate (FHR) monitor during oxytocin infusion, it indicates decreased oxygenation to the fetus. The immediate action the nurse should take is to stop the oxytocin infusion. This helps reduce uterine activity, increase fetal oxygenation, and prevent further stress on the fetus. Stopping the oxytocin infusion is crucial to address the underlying issue causing the late decelerations. Checking the woman's blood pressure and pulse, increasing the IV rate of the nonadditive solution, or notifying the healthcare provider can be important actions but are secondary to stopping the oxytocin infusion in this scenario.

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