NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. After hydrostatic reduction for intussusception, what client response should the nurse expect to observe?
- A. Abdominal distension
- B. Currant jelly-like stools
- C. Severe, colicky-type pain with vomiting
- D. Passage of barium or water-soluble contrast with stools
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After hydrostatic reduction for intussusception, the nurse should observe the passage of barium or water-soluble contrast with stools. This indicates a successful reduction of the telescoped bowel segment. Abdominal distension and currant jelly-like stools are clinical manifestations of intussusception, not expected outcomes following hydrostatic reduction. Severe, colicky-type pain with vomiting suggests an unresolved gastrointestinal issue, not a successful reduction of intussusception.
2. A client has just been diagnosed with active tuberculosis. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform to prevent transmission to others?
- A. Begin drug therapy within 72 hours of diagnosis
- B. Place the client in a positive-pressure room
- C. Initiate standard precautions
- D. Place the client in a negative-pressure room
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A client diagnosed with active tuberculosis should be placed in isolation in a negative-pressure room to prevent transmission of infection to others. Placing the client in a negative-pressure room ensures that air is exhausted to the outside and received from surrounding areas, preventing tuberculin particles from traveling through the ventilation system and infecting others. Initiating standard precautions, as mentioned in choice C, is essential for infection control but is not specific to preventing transmission in the case of tuberculosis. Beginning drug therapy within 72 hours of diagnosis, as in choice A, is crucial for the treatment of tuberculosis but does not directly address preventing transmission. Placing the client in a positive-pressure room, as in choice B, is incorrect as positive-pressure rooms are used for clients with compromised immune systems to prevent outside pathogens from entering the room, which is not suitable for a client with active tuberculosis.
3. The client is being prepared for insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter (Swan-Ganz catheter). What information does the client need to know about the purpose of this catheter insertion?
- A. Stroke volume
- B. Cardiac output
- C. Venous pressure
- D. Left ventricular functioning
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Left ventricular functioning. The purpose of inserting a pulmonary artery catheter is to obtain information about left ventricular functioning when the catheter balloon is inflated. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while a pulmonary artery catheter can provide information on stroke volume, cardiac output, and venous pressure, its primary purpose is to assess left ventricular function.
4. Which of the following techniques can help to prevent skin irritation or breakdown around a tracheostomy site?
- A. Manage secretions by providing suction on a regular basis
- B. Cleanse the site daily with a mixture of povidone-iodine and water
- C. Avoid using tube ties to secure the tube
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Excess secretions from the tracheostomy tube can collect near the stomal opening and cause skin breakdown. Management of secretions through regular suctioning will keep the area clean and dry, minimizing skin irritation. Choice B, cleansing the site daily with povidone-iodine and water, is incorrect as it may lead to skin irritation due to the harshness of povidone-iodine. Choice C, avoiding tube ties to secure the tube, is also incorrect as securing the tube is essential for stability. Choice D, 'None of the above,' is incorrect as managing secretions through suctioning is crucial in preventing skin irritation.
5. The healthcare provider is managing a 20 lbs (9 kg) 6-month-old with a 3-day history of diarrhea, occasional vomiting, and fever. Peripheral intravenous therapy has been initiated, with 5% dextrose in 0.33% normal saline with 20 mEq of potassium per liter infusing at 35 ml/hr. Which finding should be immediately reported to the healthcare provider?
- A. 3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour.
- B. Periodic crying and irritability.
- C. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier.
- D. No measurable voiding in 4 hours.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The critical finding that should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider is 'No measurable voiding in 4 hours.' This finding raises concerns about possible hyperkalemia, which can result from continued potassium administration and a decrease in urinary output. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious complications, including cardiac arrhythmias. The management of acute hyperkalemia involves interventions such as administering calcium to protect the heart, shifting potassium into cells, and enhancing potassium elimination from the body. The other choices do not indicate an urgent issue that requires immediate attention. Three episodes of vomiting in 1 hour can be concerning but may not be as immediately critical as the risk of hyperkalemia. Periodic crying and irritability are common in infants and may not indicate a severe complication. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier is a normal behavior in infants and does not signal a medical emergency.
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