NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. An emergency department nurse is performing an assessment on a child with a suspected diagnosis of intussusception. Which assessment question for the parents will elicit the most specific data related to this disorder?
- A. Does the child have any food allergies?
- B. What do the bowel movements look like?
- C. Has the child eaten any food in the last 24 hours?
- D. Can you describe the type of pain that the child is experiencing?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is asking the parents to describe the type of pain the child is experiencing because a report of severe colicky abdominal pain in a healthy, thriving child between 3 and 17 months of age is the classic presentation of intussusception. Typical behavior includes screaming and drawing the knees up to the chest. This specific question helps in identifying the key symptom of intussusception. Choices A, B, and C are important aspects of a health history but are not specific to the diagnosis of intussusception. Food allergies, bowel movements, and recent food intake are relevant for a comprehensive assessment but do not directly relate to the specific symptoms of intussusception.
2. You have accompanied the physician into the family waiting room to tell a young husband that his wife has not survived the car accident she was in. The husband is crying and distraught. What is the most appropriate approach to supporting this family member?
- A. Ask if he would like to donate his wife's organs
- B. Sit quietly with him
- C. Ask about funeral arrangements
- D. Consult social services
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most caring and supportive approach in a time of extreme distress is usually to sit quietly with the distressed individual until they have had the opportunity to absorb the news and gather themselves. Providing a supportive presence is often the most valuable tool a caregiver can use when circumstances bring overwhelming emotional pain to those they are caring for. Asking about organ donation at this moment may come off as insensitive and should not be a priority. Inquiring about funeral arrangements and consulting social services can be addressed later, once the husband has had time to process the initial shock and emotions.
3. Following mitral valve replacement surgery, a client develops PVCs. The healthcare provider orders a bolus of Lidocaine followed by a continuous Lidocaine infusion at a rate of 2 mg/minute. The IV solution contains 2 grams of Lidocaine in 500 mL of D5W. The infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops/mL. What rate would deliver 4 mg of Lidocaine per minute?
- A. 60 microdrops/minute
- B. 20 microdrops/minute
- C. 30 microdrops/minute
- D. 40 microdrops/minute
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the rate needed to deliver 4 mg/minute of Lidocaine, first, convert 2 grams to milligrams: 2 grams = 2000 mg. Then, set up a ratio between the total amount of Lidocaine (2000 mg) and the total volume of IV solution (500 mL): 2000 mg / 500 mL = 4 mg / x mL. Solving for x, x = 1 mL. Since the infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops per mL, multiplying by 60 microdrops/mL gives the correct rate of 60 microdrops/minute. This rate ensures the desired 4 mg of Lidocaine is delivered per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided information.
4. A nurse caring for several patients in the cardiac unit is told that one is scheduled for implantation of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator. Which of the following patients is most likely to have this procedure?
- A. A patient admitted for myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage.
- B. A postoperative coronary bypass patient, recovering on schedule.
- C. A patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes.
- D. A patient with a history of atrial tachycardia and fatigue.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is a patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes. An automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator is used to deliver an electric shock to the heart to terminate episodes of ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. These patients are at high risk of life-threatening arrhythmias, which may result in syncope. Patients with atrial tachycardia and fatigue (Choice D) would not typically require an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator as their primary issue is related to atrial arrhythmias. Patients who have had a myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage (Choice A) or postoperative coronary bypass patients recovering on schedule (Choice B) are not necessarily at high risk for ventricular arrhythmias and would not be the primary candidates for an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator.
5. Using the illustrated technique, the healthcare provider is assessing for which finding in a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
- A. Hyperresonance
- B. Tripod positioning
- C. Accessory muscle use
- D. Reduced chest expansion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The technique for palpation for chest expansion is shown in the illustrated technique. Reduced chest expansion would be noted on palpation of a patient's chest with COPD. Hyperresonance would be assessed through percussion, not palpation. Accessory muscle use and tripod positioning would be assessed by inspection, not palpation.
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