Nursing Elites

1. An emergency department nurse is performing an assessment on a child with a suspected diagnosis of intussusception. Which assessment question for the parents will elicit the most specific data related to this disorder?

• A. Does the child have any food allergies?
• B. What do the bowel movements look like?
• C. Has the child eaten any food in the last 24 hours?
• D. Can you describe the type of pain that the child is experiencing?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is asking the parents to describe the type of pain the child is experiencing because a report of severe colicky abdominal pain in a healthy, thriving child between 3 and 17 months of age is the classic presentation of intussusception. Typical behavior includes screaming and drawing the knees up to the chest. This specific question helps in identifying the key symptom of intussusception. Choices A, B, and C are important aspects of a health history but are not specific to the diagnosis of intussusception. Food allergies, bowel movements, and recent food intake are relevant for a comprehensive assessment but do not directly relate to the specific symptoms of intussusception.

2. A 4-year-old hospitalized child begins to have a seizure while playing with hard plastic toys in the hallway. Of the following nursing actions, which one should the nurse do first?

• A. Place the child in the nearest bed
• B. Administer IV medication to slow down the seizure
• C. Place a padded tongue blade in the child's mouth
• D. Remove the child's toys from the immediate area

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a seizure, the priority nursing actions are to ensure the safety of the child and maintain airway patency. Placing objects in the child's mouth, like a padded tongue blade, is not recommended as it can lead to injury or obstruction of the airway. Moving the child to a bed is also not the immediate priority during a seizure. Administering IV medication to slow down the seizure is not typically done as the initial action. Therefore, the correct first nursing action is to remove any potential hazards, such as the hard plastic toys, from the immediate area to prevent injury during the seizure.

3. Why is it important to genotype HCV before initiating drug therapy?

• A. Side effects of nucleotide analogs
• B. Measures for improving the appetite
• C. Ways to increase activity and exercise
• D. Administering alpha-interferon (Intron A)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Genotyping of HCV plays a crucial role in managing treatment as it helps determine the most effective therapy for the specific viral strain. It allows healthcare providers to personalize treatment regimens and predict response rates. The statement about acute HCV infection converting to chronic state is accurate, highlighting the need for appropriate management. Immune globulin and vaccines are not available for HCV, and Ribavirin is commonly used for chronic HCV infection. Improving appetite is essential in liver health as adequate nutritional intake supports hepatocyte regeneration. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the specific importance of genotyping in HCV treatment or the significance of appetite improvement in liver function.

4. Septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock are all categorized as:

• A. Hypovolemic shock
• B. Cardiogenic shock
• C. Distributive shock
• D. Obstructive shock

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock are all types of distributive shock. Distributive shock is characterized by a decrease in systemic vascular resistance, leading to poor tissue perfusion. Septic shock is caused by severe infection, anaphylactic shock is an extreme allergic reaction, and neurogenic shock results from damage to the nervous system. Hypovolemic shock (Choice A) is characterized by a decrease in intravascular volume, cardiogenic shock (Choice B) is due to heart failure, and obstructive shock (Choice D) results from obstruction of blood flow. Therefore, the correct categorization for septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock is distributive shock.

5. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and decreased cardiac output is being cared for by a nurse. The nurse assesses the patient for mental status changes. What is the rationale for this intervention?

• A. Decreased cardiac output can cause hypoxia to the brain
• B. Mental status changes may be a side effect of the patient's medication
• C. Mitral regurgitation is a complication associated with some neurological disorders
• D. The patient may be confused about his diagnosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a patient with severe mitral regurgitation and decreased cardiac output, assessing for mental status changes is crucial. Decreased cardiac output can lead to inadequate perfusion and oxygenation of vital organs, including the brain, resulting in hypoxia. This hypoxia can manifest as mental status changes such as confusion, restlessness, or lethargy. Therefore, monitoring mental status helps in identifying potential hypoxic states and guiding appropriate interventions. The other options are incorrect as they do not directly correlate decreased cardiac output with potential hypoxia-induced mental status changes.

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