Nursing Elites

1. Which oxygen delivery system would provide the highest concentrations of oxygen to the client?

• A. Venturi mask
• B. Partial rebreather mask
• C. Non-rebreather mask
• D. Simple face mask

Correct answer: Non-rebreather mask

Rationale: The correct answer is the non-rebreather mask. This oxygen delivery system has a one-way valve that prevents exhaled air from entering the reservoir bag and one or more valves covering the air holes on the face mask itself to prevent the inhalation of room air but allow exhalation of air. When a tight seal is achieved around the mask, up to 100% of oxygen is available. Choice A, the Venturi mask, delivers precise oxygen concentrations but not as high as the non-rebreather mask. Choice B, the partial rebreather mask, allows the client to rebreathe some exhaled air, resulting in lower oxygen concentrations than the non-rebreather mask. Choice D, the simple face mask, delivers low to moderate oxygen concentrations and is not designed to provide the highest concentrations like the non-rebreather mask.

2. A child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Wilms tumor, stage II. Which of the following statements most accurately describes this stage?

• A. The tumor is less than 3 cm in size and requires no chemotherapy.
• B. The tumor did not extend beyond the kidney and was completely resected.
• C. The tumor extended beyond the kidney but was completely resected.
• D. The tumor has spread into the abdominal cavity and cannot be resected.

Correct answer: The tumor extended beyond the kidney but was completely resected.

Rationale: In Wilms tumor staging, stage II indicates that the tumor extends beyond the kidney but is completely resected. This means that the tumor has spread beyond the kidney but has been successfully removed. Choices A and B are incorrect because a tumor less than 3 cm in size and a tumor that did not extend beyond the kidney do not align with the characteristics of stage II Wilms tumor. Choice D is also incorrect as it describes a more advanced stage where the tumor has spread into the abdominal cavity and cannot be completely resected. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as it accurately reflects the characteristics of a stage II Wilms tumor.

3. Septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock are all categorized as:

• A. Hypovolemic shock
• B. Cardiogenic shock
• C. Distributive shock
• D. Obstructive shock

Correct answer: C: Distributive shock

Rationale: Septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock are all types of distributive shock. Distributive shock is characterized by a decrease in systemic vascular resistance, leading to poor tissue perfusion. Septic shock is caused by severe infection, anaphylactic shock is an extreme allergic reaction, and neurogenic shock results from damage to the nervous system. Hypovolemic shock (Choice A) is characterized by a decrease in intravascular volume, cardiogenic shock (Choice B) is due to heart failure, and obstructive shock (Choice D) results from obstruction of blood flow. Therefore, the correct categorization for septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock is distributive shock.

4. The child with hemolytic-uremic syndrome is anuric and will undergo peritoneal dialysis. Which measure should the nurse implement?

• A. Restrict fluids as prescribed.
• B. Care for the arteriovenous fistula.
• C. Encourage foods high in potassium.
• D. Administer analgesics as prescribed.

Correct answer: Restrict fluids as prescribed.

Rationale: In hemolytic-uremic syndrome, often associated with bacterial toxins and viruses, acute kidney injury occurs in children, leading to symptoms like anemia, thrombocytopenia, renal injury, and CNS symptoms. For an anuric child with hemolytic-uremic syndrome undergoing peritoneal dialysis, fluid restriction is vital to prevent fluid overload. Pain management is not directly related to hemolytic-uremic syndrome. Foods high in potassium should be limited, not encouraged, due to impaired kidney function. Peritoneal dialysis does not involve an arteriovenous fistula, which is specific to hemodialysis.

5. A healthcare provider calls a physician with the concern that a patient has developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following symptoms has the healthcare provider most likely observed?

• A. The patient is somnolent with decreased response to stimuli.
• B. The patient suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath.
• C. The patient has developed a wet cough and the healthcare provider hears crackles on auscultation of the lungs.
• D. The patient has a fever, chills, and loss of appetite.

Correct answer: The patient suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath.

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The patient suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath.' Typical symptoms of pulmonary embolism include chest pain, shortness of breath, and severe anxiety. The physician should be notified immediately. Clinical signs and symptoms for pulmonary embolism are nonspecific; therefore, patients suspected of having pulmonary embolism—because of unexplained dyspnea, tachypnea, or chest pain or the presence of risk factors for pulmonary embolism—must undergo diagnostic tests until the diagnosis is ascertained or eliminated or an alternative diagnosis is confirmed. Choices A, C, and D describe symptoms that are not typically associated with a pulmonary embolism, making them incorrect.

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