Nursing Elites

1. Following surgery to correct cryptorchidism, what is the priority action that the nurse should include in the plan of care?

• A. Prevent tension on the suture.
• B. Monitor urine for glucose and acetone.
• C. Encourage oral fluids, and monitor intake and output.
• D. Encourage coughing and deep breathing every hour.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to prevent tension on the suture. After surgery for cryptorchidism, the testicle is held in position by an internal suture that should not be dislodged. Immobilization of the area for a week is crucial to prevent complications like bleeding and infection. Monitoring urine for glucose and acetone is unrelated to this surgery. While maintaining hydration is important, forcing fluids is not necessary. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing every hour may be a postoperative consideration, but it is not the priority for this specific surgery.

2. During the admission assessment of a client with chronic bilateral glaucoma, which statement by the client would the nurse anticipate due to this condition?

• A. "I have constant blurred vision."?
• B. "I can't see on my left side."?
• C. "I have to turn my head to see my room."?
• D. "I have specks floating in my eyes."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In chronic bilateral glaucoma, peripheral visual field loss occurs due to elevated intraocular pressure, leading to the need to turn the head to compensate for the visual field deficit. This symptom is characteristic of advanced glaucoma. Choice A is incorrect as constant blurred vision is a common symptom but not specific to peripheral vision loss in glaucoma. Choice B is incorrect because specific visual field deficits are more common than complete loss on one side. Choice D is incorrect as seeing floaters (specks floating in the eyes) is associated with other eye conditions like posterior vitreous detachment, not glaucoma.

3. Which finding is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider about a patient who received a liver transplant 1 week ago?

• A. Dry palpebral and oral mucosa
• B. Crackles at bilateral lung bases
• C. Temperature 100.8?F (38.2?C)
• D. No bowel movement for 4 days

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the patient's temperature of 100.8�F (38.2�C). In a patient who received a liver transplant 1 week ago, a fever is a significant finding that should be promptly communicated to the health care provider. Post-transplant patients are at high risk of infections, and fever can often be the initial indicator of an underlying infectious process. The other findings listed in choices A, B, and D are important and should be addressed, but they do not take precedence over a potential infection post-liver transplant. Dry palpebral and oral mucosa may indicate dehydration, crackles at bilateral lung bases may suggest fluid overload or infection, and no bowel movement for 4 days could indicate a bowel obstruction or ileus. However, in the context of a recent liver transplant, an elevated temperature is the most concerning and requires immediate attention to rule out infection.

4. A client with Multiple Sclerosis reports a constant, burning, tingling pain in the shoulders. The nurse anticipates that the physician will order which medication for this type of pain?

• A. alprazolam (Xanax)
• B. Corticosteroid injection
• C. gabapentin (Neurontin)
• D. hydrocodone/acetaminophen (Norco)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For neuropathic pain associated with conditions like Multiple Sclerosis, medications like gabapentin, an anticonvulsant, are commonly used. Gabapentin helps in managing nerve pain by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain and nervous system. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not primarily indicated for neuropathic pain. Corticosteroid injections are more suitable for inflammatory conditions like arthritis, not for neuropathic pain. Hydrocodone/acetaminophen is an opioid combination used for moderate to severe pain, but it is not the first-line choice for neuropathic pain.

5. A client comes to the clinic for treatment of recurrent pelvic inflammatory disease. The nurse recognizes that this condition most frequently follows which type of infection?

• A. Trichomoniasis
• B. Chlamydia
• C. Staphylococcus
• D. Streptococcus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chlamydial infections are one of the most common causes of salpingitis or pelvic inflammatory disease. Chlamydia can ascend from the vagina or cervix to the reproductive organs, leading to inflammation and infection. Trichomoniasis, caused by a parasite, typically presents with different symptoms than pelvic inflammatory disease and is not the primary cause. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus are bacteria that can cause other types of infections but are not the primary culprits in most cases of pelvic inflammatory disease.

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