Nursing Elites

1. A client with myocardial infarction is receiving tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase (Activase, tPA). While on the therapy, the nurse plans to prioritize which of the following?

• A. Observe for neurological changes
• B. Monitor for any signs of renal failure
• C. Check the food diary
• D. Observe for signs of bleeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority concern for a client receiving thrombolytic medication, such as tissue plasminogen activator (alteplase), is to monitor for signs of bleeding. Thrombolytics work by converting plasminogen to plasmin, which degrades fibrin. This process can lead to the breakdown of both fibrin-bound plasminogen on thrombi surfaces and unbound plasminogen in the plasma. The resulting plasmin can degrade fibrin, fibrinogen, factor V, and factor VIII. Observing for signs of bleeding is crucial due to the increased risk of hemorrhage associated with thrombolytic therapy. Monitoring for neurological changes, signs of renal failure, or checking the food diary are not the immediate priorities compared to detecting and managing potential bleeding complications.

2. To detect possible complications in a patient with severe cirrhosis who has bleeding esophageal varices, it is most important for the nurse to monitor

• A. bilirubin levels.
• B. ammonia levels.
• C. potassium levels.
• D. prothrombin time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a patient with severe cirrhosis and bleeding esophageal varices, monitoring ammonia levels is crucial. Severe liver dysfunction impairs the metabolism of protein in the GI tract, leading to increased ammonia levels. Elevated ammonia levels can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication. Monitoring bilirubin levels is important for assessing liver function and jaundice but may not directly reflect the risk of complications from bleeding esophageal varices. Potassium levels are important but not the most critical in this scenario. Prothrombin time is essential for evaluating coagulation status but does not directly relate to the risk of complications from bleeding esophageal varices in this patient.

3. A client with asthma has low-pitched wheezes present on the final half of exhalation. One hour later the client has high-pitched wheezes extending throughout exhalation. This change in assessment indicates to the nurse that the client

• A. Has increased airway obstruction
• B. Has improved airway obstruction
• C. Needs to be suctioned
• D. Exhibits hyperventilation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The higher pitched a sound is, the more narrow the airway. Therefore, the obstruction has increased or worsened. With no evidence of secretions, there is no support to indicate the need for suctioning. Wheezes changing from low-pitched to high-pitched and extending throughout exhalation suggest a progression in airway constriction, indicating an increase in airway obstruction. Option B is incorrect because the change in wheezes from low to high pitch does not suggest an improvement in airway obstruction. Option C is incorrect as there is no indication of secretions requiring suctioning. Option D is incorrect as hyperventilation is not typically associated with the described change in wheezes.

4. A patient with pneumonia has a fever of 101.4 F (38.6 C), a nonproductive cough, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. The patient complains of weakness, fatigue, and needs assistance to get out of bed. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse assign as the highest priority?

• A. Hyperthermia related to infectious illness
• B. Impaired transfer ability related to weakness
• C. Ineffective airway clearance related to thick secretions
• D. Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion.' While all the nursing diagnoses are relevant to the patient's condition, the priority should be given to impaired gas exchange due to the patient's low oxygen saturation level of 88%. This indicates a significant risk of hypoxia for all body tissues unless the gas exchange is improved. Addressing impaired gas exchange is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation and prevent further complications. Hyperthermia, impaired transfer ability, and ineffective airway clearance are important concerns but addressing gas exchange takes precedence in this scenario.

5. Which individual is at greatest risk for developing hypertension?

• A. 45-year-old African-American attorney
• B. 60-year-old Asian-American shop owner
• C. 40-year-old Caucasian nurse
• D. 55-year-old Hispanic teacher

Correct answer: A

Rationale: African-Americans have a higher risk of developing hypertension compared to other ethnic groups. They tend to develop high blood pressure at younger ages and are more sensitive to salt, which increases their risk of hypertension. Additionally, studies have shown that African-Americans may respond differently to hypertensive drugs. Therefore, the 45-year-old African-American attorney is at the greatest risk for developing hypertension. The other choices do not specify factors that put them at a higher risk for hypertension compared to African-Americans.

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