Nursing Elites

1. A client with myocardial infarction is receiving tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase (Activase, tPA). While on the therapy, the nurse plans to prioritize which of the following?

• A. Observe for neurological changes
• B. Monitor for any signs of renal failure
• C. Check the food diary
• D. Observe for signs of bleeding

Correct answer: Observe for signs of bleeding

Rationale: The priority concern for a client receiving thrombolytic medication, such as tissue plasminogen activator (alteplase), is to monitor for signs of bleeding. Thrombolytics work by converting plasminogen to plasmin, which degrades fibrin. This process can lead to the breakdown of both fibrin-bound plasminogen on thrombi surfaces and unbound plasminogen in the plasma. The resulting plasmin can degrade fibrin, fibrinogen, factor V, and factor VIII. Observing for signs of bleeding is crucial due to the increased risk of hemorrhage associated with thrombolytic therapy. Monitoring for neurological changes, signs of renal failure, or checking the food diary are not the immediate priorities compared to detecting and managing potential bleeding complications.

2. A physician suspects a patient may have pancreatitis. Which of the following tests would be most appropriate to diagnose this condition?

• A. CK and Troponin
• B. BUN and Creatinine
• C. Amylase and Lipase
• D. HDL and LDL Cholesterol Levels

Correct answer: C: Amylase and Lipase

Rationale: To diagnose pancreatitis, testing amylase and lipase levels is crucial. Amylase and lipase are enzymes produced by the pancreas that help digest carbohydrates and lipids. In pancreatitis, these enzymes are released in high amounts into the bloodstream due to pancreatic inflammation or damage. Elevated levels of amylase and lipase in blood tests strongly indicate pancreatitis. Choice A, CK and Troponin, are cardiac markers used in diagnosing heart conditions like myocardial infarction, not pancreatitis. Choice B, BUN and Creatinine, are kidney function tests, not specific to pancreatitis. Choice D, HDL and LDL Cholesterol Levels, are lipid profile tests used to assess cardiovascular health, not for diagnosing pancreatitis.

3. The nurse is caring for an infant with cryptorchidism. The nurse anticipates that the most likely diagnostic study to be prescribed would be the one that assesses which item?

• A. Babinski reflex
• B. DNA synthesis
• C. Urinary function
• D. Chromosomal analysis

Correct answer: Urinary function

Rationale: Cryptorchidism, also known as undescended testes, may be caused by hormonal deficiency, intrinsic testicular abnormality, or a structural problem. Diagnostic studies for cryptorchidism typically involve assessing urinary function because the kidneys and testes originate from the same embryonic tissue. The Babinski reflex is a test for neurological function and is not relevant to evaluating cryptorchidism. DNA synthesis and chromosomal analysis are not commonly used diagnostic tests for cryptorchidism, as they are unrelated to the disorder's etiology or presentation.

4. The parents of a newborn with a cleft lip are concerned and ask the nurse when the lip will be repaired. With which statement should the nurse respond?

• A. Cleft lip cannot be repaired.
• B. Cleft-lip repair is usually performed by 6 months of age.
• C. Cleft-lip repair is usually performed during the first months of life.
• D. Cleft-lip repair is usually performed between 6 months and 2 years.

Correct answer: Cleft-lip repair is usually performed during the first months of life.

Rationale: Cleft-lip repair is typically performed during the first few months of life to address functional and cosmetic concerns at an early stage. Early repair can enhance bonding and facilitate feeding. While revisions may be necessary later on, addressing the cleft lip early is essential. Option A is incorrect as cleft lip repair is a common surgical procedure. Option B is incorrect as repair is typically done earlier than 6 months for better outcomes. Option D is incorrect as the usual timing for repair is within the first months of life, not between 6 months and 2 years.

5. A client is in her third month of her first pregnancy. During the interview, she tells the nurse that she has several sex partners and is unsure of the identity of the baby’s father. Which of the following nursing interventions is a priority?

• A. Counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening.
• B. Perform tests for sexually transmitted diseases.
• C. Discuss her high risk for cervical cancer.
• D. Refer the client to a family planning clinic.

Correct answer: Counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening.

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's disclosure of having multiple sex partners and uncertainty about the baby's father indicates a potential high risk for HIV. Therefore, the priority nursing intervention is to counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening. Early detection of HIV is crucial for initiating timely treatment and improving outcomes. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority in this situation as HIV screening takes precedence over testing for other sexually transmitted diseases, discussing cervical cancer risk, or referring to a family planning clinic.

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