Nursing Elites

1. A client with myocardial infarction is receiving tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase (Activase, tPA). While on the therapy, the nurse plans to prioritize which of the following?

• A. Observe for neurological changes
• B. Monitor for any signs of renal failure
• C. Check the food diary
• D. Observe for signs of bleeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority concern for a client receiving thrombolytic medication, such as tissue plasminogen activator (alteplase), is to monitor for signs of bleeding. Thrombolytics work by converting plasminogen to plasmin, which degrades fibrin. This process can lead to the breakdown of both fibrin-bound plasminogen on thrombi surfaces and unbound plasminogen in the plasma. The resulting plasmin can degrade fibrin, fibrinogen, factor V, and factor VIII. Observing for signs of bleeding is crucial due to the increased risk of hemorrhage associated with thrombolytic therapy. Monitoring for neurological changes, signs of renal failure, or checking the food diary are not the immediate priorities compared to detecting and managing potential bleeding complications.

2. A client is scheduled for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP). In order to prepare the client for this test, the nurse would:

• A. Instruct the client to maintain a regular diet the day prior to the examination
• B. Restrict the client's fluid intake 4 hours prior to the examination
• C. Administer a laxative to the client the evening before the examination
• D. Inform the client that only 1 x-ray of his abdomen is necessary

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering a laxative to the client the evening before the examination is the correct action. Bowel prep is crucial for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) as it helps in achieving better visualization of the bladder and ureters. Instructing the client to maintain a regular diet the day prior to the examination (Choice A) is not the appropriate preparation for an IVP. Restricting the client's fluid intake 4 hours prior to the examination (Choice B) is not necessary for this test. Informing the client that only 1 x-ray of his abdomen is necessary (Choice D) is not relevant to the preparation process for an IVP.

3. A patient is diagnosed with both human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and active tuberculosis (TB) disease. Which information obtained by the nurse is most important to communicate to the healthcare provider?

• A. The Mantoux test induration measured 7 mm.
• B. The chest x-ray revealed infiltrates in the lower lobes.
• C. The patient is receiving antiretroviral therapy for HIV infection.
• D. The patient has a cough producing blood-tinged mucus.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most critical information to communicate to the healthcare provider in a patient diagnosed with both HIV and active TB disease is that the patient is receiving antiretroviral therapy for HIV infection. This is crucial because drug interactions can occur between antiretrovirals used to treat HIV infection and medications used to treat TB. By informing the healthcare provider about the antiretroviral therapy, potential interactions can be assessed and managed effectively to optimize patient care. The other data provided, such as the Mantoux test result, chest x-ray findings, and presence of blood-tinged mucus, are important clinical information but are expected in a patient with coexisting HIV and TB and do not directly impact potential drug interactions between antiretrovirals and TB medications.

4. What drives respiration in a patient with advanced chronic respiratory failure?

• A. Hypoxemia
• B. Hypocapnia
• C. Hypercapnia
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In patients with advanced chronic respiratory failure, such as those with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the respiratory drive shifts from being primarily stimulated by high levels of carbon dioxide (hypercapnia) to being driven by low oxygen levels (hypoxemia). This shift is due to the body's adaptation to chronic respiratory acidosis and hypoxemia. As a result, hypoxemia becomes the primary stimulus for respiration in these patients. Hypocapnia, a low level of carbon dioxide, is not a common driver of respiration in patients with advanced chronic respiratory failure. Therefore, the correct answer is hypoxemia.

5. A child is hospitalized because of persistent vomiting. The nurse should monitor the child closely for which problem?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Metabolic acidosis
• C. Metabolic alkalosis
• D. Hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario of persistent vomiting, the child is at risk of developing metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of hydrochloric acid. Vomiting leads to the loss of gastric acid, resulting in an imbalance that causes metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic acidosis is incorrect as it would occur in a child with diarrhea due to the loss of bicarbonate. While diarrhea can sometimes be associated with vomiting, in this case, the primary focus is on the effects of vomiting. Hyperactive bowel sounds are not typically associated with vomiting, making this choice less relevant to the situation described.

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