Nursing Elites

1. A client with myocardial infarction is receiving tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase (Activase, tPA). While on the therapy, the nurse plans to prioritize which of the following?

• A. Observe for neurological changes
• B. Monitor for any signs of renal failure
• C. Check the food diary
• D. Observe for signs of bleeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority concern for a client receiving thrombolytic medication, such as tissue plasminogen activator (alteplase), is to monitor for signs of bleeding. Thrombolytics work by converting plasminogen to plasmin, which degrades fibrin. This process can lead to the breakdown of both fibrin-bound plasminogen on thrombi surfaces and unbound plasminogen in the plasma. The resulting plasmin can degrade fibrin, fibrinogen, factor V, and factor VIII. Observing for signs of bleeding is crucial due to the increased risk of hemorrhage associated with thrombolytic therapy. Monitoring for neurological changes, signs of renal failure, or checking the food diary are not the immediate priorities compared to detecting and managing potential bleeding complications.

2. A client in end-stage renal disease is receiving peritoneal dialysis at home. The nurse must educate the client about potential complications associated with this procedure. All of the following are complications associated with peritoneal dialysis EXCEPT:

• A. Hypotriglyceridemia
• B. Abdominal hernia
• C. Anorexia
• D. Peritonitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Peritoneal dialysis poses risks of various complications, including abdominal hernia, anorexia, peritonitis, and other issues. However, hypotriglyceridemia is not a common complication associated with peritoneal dialysis. The nurse should focus on educating the client about the risks of developing peritonitis, abdominal hernias, anorexia, low back pain, and abdominal bleeding. Monitoring triglyceride levels is essential for managing lipid disorders but is not directly linked to peritoneal dialysis complications.

3. A patient with stage I nonsmall cell lung cancer expresses a preference for chemotherapy over surgery. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Are you concerned about the potential pain from surgery?
• B. Have you had negative experiences with previous surgeries?
• C. Surgery is the recommended treatment for stage I lung cancer.
• D. Tell me about your understanding of the different available treatments.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse in this situation is to gather more information about the patient's concerns and preferences. By asking the patient to share their understanding of the available treatments, the nurse encourages open communication and gains insight into the patient's knowledge and preferences. Option A focuses solely on pain, which may not be the patient's primary concern. Option B assumes negative experiences without exploring the patient's current thoughts. Option C, stating that surgery is the recommended treatment, dismisses the patient's preference and does not address their concerns. Chemotherapy is not the primary treatment for nonsmall cell lung cancer; it may be used for nonresectable tumors or as adjuvant therapy to surgery, making it crucial for the nurse to explore the patient's treatment preferences and understanding.

4. The nurse is assessing an infant with developmental dysplasia of the hip. Which finding would the nurse anticipate?

• A. Unequal leg length
• B. Limited adduction
• C. Diminished femoral pulses
• D. Symmetrical gluteal folds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH), one of the key findings is unequal leg length. This occurs due to the dislocation of the hip joint, where the ball is loose in the socket. Limited adduction, the inability to bring the hip and knee towards the midline of the body, is also a common finding in DDH. Diminished femoral pulses are not typically associated with DDH, as it primarily affects the skeletal structure rather than vascular supply. Symmetrical gluteal folds are normal in infants and do not indicate DDH, as asymmetry in gluteal folds can be a sign of hip dislocation.

5. A patient's nursing diagnosis is Insomnia. The desired outcome is: "Patient will sleep for a minimum of 5 hours nightly by October 31."? On November 1, a review of the sleep data shows the patient sleeps an average of 4 hours nightly and takes a 2-hour afternoon nap. What is the nurse's next action?

• A. Continue the current plan without changes.
• B. Remove this nursing diagnosis from the plan of care.
• C. Write a new nursing diagnosis that better reflects the problem.
• D. Revise the target date for outcome attainment and examine interventions.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this scenario is to revise the target date for outcome attainment and reevaluate interventions. The initial desired outcome was for the patient to sleep for a minimum of 5 hours nightly by October 31. Since the patient is currently sleeping an average of 4 hours nightly and taking a 2-hour afternoon nap, the goal has not been achieved. By extending the time frame for attaining the outcome, the patient may have more time to progress towards the desired sleep duration. Additionally, examining interventions is crucial to identify any changes or adjustments that may be necessary to help the patient achieve the desired outcome. Continuing the current plan without changes is not appropriate as the goal has not been met. Removing the nursing diagnosis from the plan of care should only be considered when the problem is resolved. Writing a new nursing diagnosis is not needed as the current diagnosis of Insomnia still accurately reflects the patient's condition.

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