Nursing Elites

1. A client with myocardial infarction is receiving tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase (Activase, tPA). While on the therapy, the nurse plans to prioritize which of the following?

• A. Observe for neurological changes
• B. Monitor for any signs of renal failure
• C. Check the food diary
• D. Observe for signs of bleeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority concern for a client receiving thrombolytic medication, such as tissue plasminogen activator (alteplase), is to monitor for signs of bleeding. Thrombolytics work by converting plasminogen to plasmin, which degrades fibrin. This process can lead to the breakdown of both fibrin-bound plasminogen on thrombi surfaces and unbound plasminogen in the plasma. The resulting plasmin can degrade fibrin, fibrinogen, factor V, and factor VIII. Observing for signs of bleeding is crucial due to the increased risk of hemorrhage associated with thrombolytic therapy. Monitoring for neurological changes, signs of renal failure, or checking the food diary are not the immediate priorities compared to detecting and managing potential bleeding complications.

2. To prevent a Valsalva maneuver in a client recovering from an acute myocardial infarction, the nurse would:

• A. Assist the client in using the bedside commode.
• B. Administer stool softeners daily as prescribed.
• C. Administer antidysrhythmics prn as ordered.
• D. Maintain the client on strict bed rest.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering stool softeners daily is crucial to prevent straining during defecation, which can lead to the Valsalva maneuver. Straining can increase intrathoracic pressure, decrease venous return to the heart, and reduce cardiac output, potentially worsening the client's condition. If constipation occurs, the use of laxatives may be necessary to avoid straining. Administering antidysrhythmics on an as-needed basis is not indicated for preventing the Valsalva maneuver; they are used to manage dysrhythmias. Strict bed rest is not necessary and may lead to complications such as deconditioning, DVT, and respiratory issues in the absence of specific medical indications.

3. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient experiencing a migraine headache?

• A. Acute pain related to biologic and chemical factors
• B. Anxiety related to change in or threat to health status
• C. Hopelessness related to deteriorating physiological condition
• D. Risk for side effects related to medical therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a patient experiencing a migraine headache is 'Acute pain related to biologic and chemical factors.' Migraine headaches are characterized by severe throbbing pain, often accompanied by sensitivity to light and sound. Addressing the acute pain is crucial to improve the patient's comfort and quality of life. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority nursing diagnoses for a patient with a migraine headache. Anxiety, hopelessness, and risk for side effects may not be as urgent as managing the acute pain associated with a migraine.

4. During the admission assessment of a client with chronic bilateral glaucoma, which statement by the client would the nurse anticipate due to this condition?

• A. "I have constant blurred vision."?
• B. "I can't see on my left side."?
• C. "I have to turn my head to see my room."?
• D. "I have specks floating in my eyes."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In chronic bilateral glaucoma, peripheral visual field loss occurs due to elevated intraocular pressure, leading to the need to turn the head to compensate for the visual field deficit. This symptom is characteristic of advanced glaucoma. Choice A is incorrect as constant blurred vision is a common symptom but not specific to peripheral vision loss in glaucoma. Choice B is incorrect because specific visual field deficits are more common than complete loss on one side. Choice D is incorrect as seeing floaters (specks floating in the eyes) is associated with other eye conditions like posterior vitreous detachment, not glaucoma.

5. A healthcare provider calls a physician with the concern that a patient has developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following symptoms has the healthcare provider most likely observed?

• A. The patient is somnolent with decreased response to stimuli.
• B. The patient suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath.
• C. The patient has developed a wet cough and the healthcare provider hears crackles on auscultation of the lungs.
• D. The patient has a fever, chills, and loss of appetite.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The patient suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath.' Typical symptoms of pulmonary embolism include chest pain, shortness of breath, and severe anxiety. The physician should be notified immediately. Clinical signs and symptoms for pulmonary embolism are nonspecific; therefore, patients suspected of having pulmonary embolism"?because of unexplained dyspnea, tachypnea, or chest pain or the presence of risk factors for pulmonary embolism"?must undergo diagnostic tests until the diagnosis is ascertained or eliminated or an alternative diagnosis is confirmed. Choices A, C, and D describe symptoms that are not typically associated with a pulmonary embolism, making them incorrect.

Similar Questions