NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Questions
1. A client is in the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) shivering despite being covered with several layers of blankets. What is the nurse's next action?
- A. Turn the client to the prone position
- B. Assist the client in breathing deeply
- C. Administer meperidine as ordered
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the post-anesthesia care unit, clients may experience shivering or chills due to a drop in body temperature after surgery. Meperidine (Demerol) can be prescribed to alleviate shivering in cold clients. The prone position (lying face down) and deep breathing exercises are not interventions specifically indicated for addressing shivering due to low body temperature. Therefore, administering meperidine as ordered is the most appropriate action to manage the client's shivering in this scenario.
2. A client has no pulse or respirations. After calling for help, what should the nurse's first action be?
- A. Start a peripheral IV
- B. Initiate high-quality chest compressions
- C. Establish an airway
- D. Obtain the crash cart
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a situation where a client has no pulse or respirations, the initial action recommended by the American Heart Association is to start high-quality chest compressions. This action helps maintain blood flow to vital organs such as the brain until normal heart rhythm is restored. Starting CPR with chest compressions before checking the airway and providing rescue breaths is crucial to improve outcomes. While establishing an airway and obtaining a crash cart are important steps in resuscitation, initiating chest compressions takes precedence to ensure oxygenated blood circulation. Starting with chest compressions applies to adults, children, and infants but not newborns.
3. A patient who has a right-sided chest tube following a thoracotomy has continuous bubbling in the suction-control chamber of the collection device. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Document the presence of continuous bubbling.
- B. Notify the surgeon of a possible pneumothorax.
- C. Take no further action with the collection device.
- D. Adjust the dial on the wall regulator to decrease suction.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the suction-control chamber of the chest tube collection device is an expected finding and indicates that the suction control chamber is connected to suction. It does not necessarily indicate a large air leak, which would be detected in the water-seal chamber. There is no evidence to suggest a pneumothorax based solely on continuous bubbling in the suction-control chamber. Adjusting the suction level by changing the wall regulator setting is not indicated in this situation, as the amount of suction applied is primarily regulated by the water level in the water-seal chamber and not by the vacuum source. Therefore, the most appropriate action in this scenario is for the nurse to take no further action with the collection device.
4. A 25-year-old male client has been newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism and will take levothyroxine (Synthroid) 50 mcg/day by mouth. As part of the teaching plan, the nurse emphasizes that this medication:
- A. Should be taken in the morning
- B. May increase the client's energy level
- C. Does not need to be stored in a dark container
- D. May increase the client's heart rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that levothyroxine (Synthroid) should be taken in the morning. Taking it in the morning can help prevent interference with the client's sleeping pattern, as one of the side effects of levothyroxine is insomnia. Choice B is incorrect because levothyroxine is actually used to treat hypothyroidism and can help increase energy levels. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement for levothyroxine to be stored in a dark container. Choice D is incorrect because levothyroxine is more likely to increase heart rate rather than decrease it.
5. A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is on the second postoperative day following cholecystectomy. She has complained of nausea and isn't able to eat solid foods. The nurse enters the room to find the patient confused and shaky. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms?
- A. Anesthesia reaction
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Diabetic ketoacidosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a postoperative diabetic patient who is unable to eat solid foods, the likely cause of symptoms such as confusion and shakiness is hypoglycemia. Confusion and shakiness are common manifestations of hypoglycemia. Insufficient glucose supply to the brain (neuroglycopenia) can lead to confusion, difficulty with concentration, irritability, hallucinations, focal impairments like hemiplegia, and, in severe cases, coma and death. Anesthesia reaction (Choice A) is less likely in this scenario as the patient is already on the second postoperative day. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is unlikely given the patient's symptoms and history of not eating. Diabetic ketoacidosis (Choice D) typically presents with hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis, which are not consistent with the patient's current symptoms of confusion and shakiness.
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