Nursing Elites

1. Why is accurate documentation of assessment findings regarding pressure ulcers crucial?

• A. To comply with legal requirements for documenting lesions.
• B. To meet hospital policies for documenting lesions.
• C. To fulfill physician's documentation requirements for lesions.
• D. Because the nursing assessment of ulcers is a standard of nursing practice.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Accurate documentation of assessment findings regarding pressure ulcers is crucial because the nursing assessment of ulcers is a standard practice in nursing care. Documenting these findings not only ensures continuity of care but also plays a vital role in preventing further progression of the ulcer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while laws, hospital policies, and physician requirements may influence documentation practices, the primary reason for accurate documentation lies in the standards of nursing practice and the quality of patient care.

2. During shift change, a nurse is giving report to the oncoming LPN. Which of these is an inappropriate way to give shift report?

• A. The nurse gives report to the oncoming LPN, checking a wound vac and dressing together.
• B. The nurse reports in SBAR format, noting that the client was noncompliant with their diet during the shift.
• C. The nurse reports in the hallway, in SBAR format, and alerts the oncoming LPN about how rude the client was throughout the shift.
• D. The nurse reports at bedside with the oncoming LPN and discusses the client's concerns after the chart has been reviewed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The nurse reports in the hallway, in SBAR format, and alerts the oncoming LPN about how rude the client was throughout the shift.' This choice is inappropriate because shift report should be given at the bedside, in SBAR format, and in an objective way. It is important to maintain professionalism and focus on the client's condition and care needs, rather than personal opinions or subjective comments. Reporting in the hallway may compromise patient privacy and confidentiality. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate appropriate ways of giving shift report by focusing on relevant information, using SBAR format, and discussing client concerns after reviewing the chart, which promotes effective communication and continuity of care.

3. In an emergency situation where a client is unconscious and requires immediate surgery, what action is necessary with regard to informed consent?

• A. The healthcare team will proceed with the surgery as consent is not needed in emergencies.
• B. The healthcare team will wait until the client's family can be contacted for consent.
• C. The healthcare team will contact the hospital clergy to provide informed consent.
• D. The healthcare team will obtain consent from the client's legal guardian before proceeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In emergency situations where obtaining consent is not possible due to the client's condition, healthcare providers are allowed to perform life-saving procedures without informed consent. It is assumed that the client would want to receive necessary treatment to save their life. Therefore, the correct action is for the healthcare team to proceed with the surgery as consent is not needed. Waiting to contact the client's family for consent can delay life-saving treatment, risking the client's life. Contacting the hospital clergy for consent is unnecessary and can cause further delays. Obtaining consent from the client's legal guardian is not feasible in this critical situation and may lead to a delay in providing essential care.

4. All of the following are causes of vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy except:

• A. Placenta previa.
• B. Eclampsia.
• C. Abruptio placentae.
• D. Uterine rupture.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eclampsia. Eclampsia is a disorder of pregnancy characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. This condition can cause seizures and/or coma but does not typically present with vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are abnormal conditions that can cause bleeding, particularly in the third trimester. Placenta previa (choice A) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to vaginal bleeding. Abruptio placentae (choice C) is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, causing vaginal bleeding. Uterine rupture (choice D) is a serious obstetrical emergency where the uterus tears during pregnancy or childbirth, resulting in severe bleeding.

5. A nursing care plan for a client with sleep problems has been implemented. All of the following should be expected outcomes except:

• A. the client reports no episodes of awakening during the night.
• B. the client falls asleep within 1 hour of going to bed.
• C. the client reports satisfaction with their amount of sleep.
• D. the client rates sleep as an 8 or more on the visual analog scale.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An expected outcome for a nursing care plan targeting sleep problems is that the client reports no episodes of awakening during the night, the client reports satisfaction with their amount of sleep, and the client rates sleep as an 8 or more on the visual analog scale. Falling asleep within 1 hour of going to bed is not necessarily an expected outcome. While it is generally desirable for individuals to fall asleep within a reasonable time frame, this specific timeframe may vary among individuals, and it is not a strict criterion for successful sleep outcomes. Therefore, the correct answer is that the client falls asleep within 1 hour of going to bed, as this is not a definitive measure of the effectiveness of the nursing care plan for sleep problems.

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