NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. A patient's chart indicates a history of meningitis. Which of the following would you NOT expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Vomiting
- C. Fever
- D. Poor tolerance of light
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Increased appetite.' In cases of acute meningitis, loss of appetite would be expected rather than an increase. Meningitis is often caused by an infectious agent that colonizes or infects various sites in the body, leading to systemic symptoms. Common symptoms of acute meningitis include fever, vomiting, and poor tolerance of light due to meningeal irritation. The inflammatory response in the meninges can result in symptoms like photophobia. Increased appetite is not typically associated with acute meningitis. Therefore, choice A is the least likely symptom to be observed in a patient with acute meningitis. Choices B, C, and D are symptoms commonly seen in acute meningitis due to the inflammatory process affecting the central nervous system and meninges.
2. The nurse assesses the chest of a patient with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which finding would the nurse expect?
- A. Increased tactile fremitus
- B. Dry, nonproductive cough
- C. Hyperresonance to percussion
- D. A grating sound on auscultation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Increased tactile fremitus over the area of pulmonary consolidation is expected with bacterial pneumonias, such as pneumococcal pneumonia. Dullness to percussion would be expected due to consolidation. Pneumococcal pneumonia typically presents with a loose, productive cough rather than a dry, nonproductive cough. Hyperresonance to percussion is not a typical finding in pneumonia and may suggest conditions like emphysema. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles and wheezes are typical in pneumonia, but a grating sound on auscultation is more representative of a pleural friction rub rather than pneumonia.
3. Septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock are all categorized as:
- A. Hypovolemic shock
- B. Cardiogenic shock
- C. Distributive shock
- D. Obstructive shock
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock are all types of distributive shock. Distributive shock is characterized by a decrease in systemic vascular resistance, leading to poor tissue perfusion. Septic shock is caused by severe infection, anaphylactic shock is an extreme allergic reaction, and neurogenic shock results from damage to the nervous system. Hypovolemic shock (Choice A) is characterized by a decrease in intravascular volume, cardiogenic shock (Choice B) is due to heart failure, and obstructive shock (Choice D) results from obstruction of blood flow. Therefore, the correct categorization for septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock is distributive shock.
4. An alcoholic and homeless patient is diagnosed with active tuberculosis (TB). Which intervention by the nurse will be most effective in ensuring adherence with the treatment regimen?
- A. Arrange for a friend to administer the medication on schedule.
- B. Give the patient written instructions about how to take the medications.
- C. Teach the patient about the high risk for infecting others unless treatment is followed.
- D. Arrange for a daily noon meal at a community center where the drug will be administered
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Directly observed therapy is the most effective means for ensuring compliance with the treatment regimen for a homeless patient with active tuberculosis. By arranging a daily noon meal at a community center where the drug will be administered, the nurse ensures that the patient is available to receive the medication and can directly observe the patient taking it. This method helps address the challenges faced by homeless individuals, such as lack of a stable living situation. The other options, such as having a friend administer the medication, giving written instructions, or educating about infecting others, may not be as effective in ensuring adherence, especially in the case of a homeless individual with alcoholism.
5. A client is being assessed for risks of a pressure ulcer by a healthcare professional. What is the best description of what may be found with an early pressure ulcer in an African American client?
- A. Skin has a purple/bluish color
- B. Capillary refill is 1 second
- C. Skin appears blanched at the pressure site
- D. Tenting appears when checking skin turgor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing for signs of developing pressure ulcers in a client with dark skin, traditional signs like blanching may not be evident. In individuals with darker skin tones, the skin of an early pressure ulcer may present with a purple or bluish hue. This discoloration can be a crucial indicator of compromised circulation and tissue damage. Capillary refill, blanching, and tenting are more commonly used in the assessment of skin integrity and hydration levels but may not be as reliable in individuals with darker skin tones, making the purple/bluish color a key finding in this context.
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