NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. A healthcare professional is putting together a presentation on meningitis. Which of the following microorganisms has not been linked to meningitis in humans?
- A. S. pneumoniae
- B. H. influenzae
- C. N. meningitidis
- D. Cl. difficile
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Cl. difficile. Clostridium difficile (C. diff) is not typically associated with meningitis in humans. This bacterium is known to cause severe diarrhea, usually as a result of antibiotic treatment. S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and N. meningitidis are all known to be causative agents of meningitis in humans. S. pneumoniae is a common cause of bacterial meningitis, especially in adults. H. influenzae, particularly type b (Hib), used to be a leading cause of meningitis in children before the introduction of the Hib vaccine. N. meningitidis is another significant pathogen responsible for causing meningitis, especially in young adults and adolescents.
2. A 20-year-old female attending college is found unconscious in her dorm room. She has a fever and a noticeable rash. She has just been admitted to the hospital. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?
- A. Blood sugar check
- B. CT scan
- C. Blood cultures
- D. Arterial blood gases
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most likely test to be performed first in this scenario is blood cultures. Blood cultures are crucial to investigate the fever and rash symptoms in an unconscious patient. This test is used to detect foreign invaders like bacteria, yeast, and other microorganisms in the blood, which could indicate a blood infection (bacteremia). A positive blood culture result confirms the presence of bacteria in the blood. A blood sugar check (choice A) may be important but is less likely to be the first test in this context. A CT scan (choice B) and arterial blood gases (choice D) are generally not the initial tests performed to investigate a fever and rash with altered mental status.
3. What action will the nurse plan to take for a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) who has urinary retention caused by a flaccid bladder?
- A. Decrease the patient's evening fluid intake.
- B. Teach the patient how to use the Cred method.
- C. Suggest the use of adult incontinence briefs for nighttime only.
- D. Assist the patient to the commode every 2 hours during the day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: For a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis experiencing urinary retention due to a flaccid bladder, teaching the Cred method is the appropriate action. The Cred method involves applying manual pressure over the bladder to aid in bladder emptying. Decreasing fluid intake is not the correct approach as it will not address the underlying issue of bladder emptying and may lead to dehydration and urinary tract infections. Using adult incontinence briefs only addresses the symptom of incontinence without addressing the bladder emptying problem. Assisting the patient to the commode every 2 hours does not actively address the issue of improving bladder emptying as effectively as teaching the Cred method.
4. Which fact about diabetes is true?
- A. Only children get type 1 diabetes.
- B. Only adults get type 2 diabetes.
- C. Children and adults can have type 1 diabetes.
- D. Both A and B
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that children and adults can have type 1 diabetes. Although type 1 diabetes is sometimes known as 'childhood diabetes,' it can affect individuals of any age. Type 1 diabetes is not limited to children. While type 2 diabetes is often associated with adults, children can also develop it, especially due to factors like obesity. Choices A and B are incorrect because diabetes is not exclusive to either children or adults; both types of diabetes can affect individuals across different age groups.
5. A female patient with atrial fibrillation has the following lab results: Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, a platelet count of 150,000, an INR of 2.5, and potassium of 2.7 mEq/L. Which result is critical and should be reported to the physician immediately?
- A. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl
- B. Platelet count of 150,000
- C. INR of 2.5
- D. Potassium of 2.7 mEq/L
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The critical lab result that should be reported to the physician immediately in this case is the potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. A potassium imbalance, especially in a patient with a history of dysrhythmia like atrial fibrillation, can be life-threatening and lead to cardiac distress. Low potassium levels (hypokalemia) can predispose the patient to dangerous arrhythmias, including worsening atrial fibrillation. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, platelet count of 150,000, and an INR of 2.5 are within acceptable ranges and not as immediately concerning as a low potassium level in this clinical context.
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