Nursing Elites

1. When auscultating the patient's lungs during a shift assessment on a patient admitted in the early phase of heart failure, which finding would the nurse most likely hear?

• A. Continuous rumbling, snoring, or rattling sounds mainly on expiration
• B. Continuous high-pitched musical sounds on inspiration and expiration
• C. Discontinuous, high-pitched sounds of short duration heard on inspiration
• D. A series of long-duration, discontinuous, low-pitched sounds during inspiration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the early phase of heart failure, fine crackles are likely to be heard upon auscultation of the lungs. Fine crackles are characterized as discontinuous, high-pitched sounds of short duration heard on inspiration. Rhonchi are continuous rumbling, snoring, or rattling sounds mainly on expiration, which are often associated with airway secretions. Coarse crackles are a series of long-duration, discontinuous, low-pitched sounds during inspiration, typically indicating fluid in the alveoli. Wheezes are continuous high-pitched musical sounds on inspiration and expiration, commonly heard in conditions like asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Therefore, the correct choice is C, as it describes the expected lung sounds in a patient with early heart failure.

2. The healthcare provider is reviewing the lab results of a patient who has presented in the Emergency Room. The lab results show that the troponin T value is at 5.3 ng/mL. Which of these interventions, if not already completed, would take priority over the others?

• A. Place the patient in a 90-degree position
• B. Assess whether the patient is taking diuretics
• C. Obtain and attach defibrillator leads
• D. Assess the patient's last ejection fraction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the elevated Troponin T level indicates cardiac damage, possibly due to a myocardial infarction. A Troponin T value of 5.3 ng/mL is significantly elevated (normal levels are below 0.2 ng/mL), suggesting acute cardiac injury. Given the setting of an Emergency Room and the critical nature of the situation, the priority intervention should be to obtain and attach defibrillator leads. Elevated Troponin T levels can indicate a higher risk of arrhythmias, including ventricular fibrillation, which can lead to sudden cardiac arrest. Defibrillator leads are essential for monitoring the patient's cardiac rhythm and readiness for immediate defibrillation if necessary. Placing the patient in a 90-degree position (Choice A) or assessing diuretic use (Choice B) are not immediate priorities in this critical situation. Additionally, assessing the patient's last ejection fraction (Choice D) is important but not as urgent as preparing for potential life-threatening arrhythmias requiring defibrillation.

3. A client asks the nurse about including her 2 and 12-year-old sons in the care of their newborn sister. Which of the following is an appropriate initial statement by the nurse?

• A. Focus on your sons' needs during the first days at home.
• B. Tell each child what he can do to help with the baby.
• C. Suggest that your husband spend more time with the boys.
• D. Ask the children what they would like to do for the newborn.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is essential for the nurse to guide the client on the initial steps in involving her 2 and 12-year-old sons in the care of their newborn sister. The most appropriate response is to 'Focus on your sons' needs during the first days at home.' In an expanded family, parents should prioritize reassuring older children that they are loved and as important as the newborn. This response acknowledges the importance of ensuring the well-being and emotional adjustment of the older siblings during the transition period. Choices B, C, and D are less appropriate as they do not directly address the emotional needs and adjustment of the older children during this significant family change.

4. The nurse is caring for an infant with cryptorchidism. The nurse anticipates that the most likely diagnostic study to be prescribed would be the one that assesses which item?

• A. Babinski reflex
• B. DNA synthesis
• C. Urinary function
• D. Chromosomal analysis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cryptorchidism, also known as undescended testes, may be caused by hormonal deficiency, intrinsic testicular abnormality, or a structural problem. Diagnostic studies for cryptorchidism typically involve assessing urinary function because the kidneys and testes originate from the same embryonic tissue. The Babinski reflex is a test for neurological function and is not relevant to evaluating cryptorchidism. DNA synthesis and chromosomal analysis are not commonly used diagnostic tests for cryptorchidism, as they are unrelated to the disorder's etiology or presentation.

5. Which topic is most important to include in patient teaching for a 41-year-old patient diagnosed with early alcoholic cirrhosis?

• A. Maintaining good nutrition
• B. Avoiding alcohol ingestion
• C. Taking lactulose (Cephulac)
• D. Using vitamin B supplements

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important topic to include in patient teaching for a 41-year-old patient diagnosed with early alcoholic cirrhosis is avoiding alcohol ingestion. Alcohol abstinence is crucial in stopping or reversing the progression of the disease. While maintaining good nutrition, taking lactulose (Cephulac), and using vitamin B supplements are important interventions in managing cirrhosis, abstaining from alcohol is the priority for this patient to prevent further damage to the liver and halt disease progression.

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