Nursing Elites

1. Which of these individuals would the nurse suspect as having the greatest risk of contracting Hepatitis B?

• A. A sexually active 45-year-old man who has Type 1 Diabetes
• B. A 75-year-old woman who lives in a crowded nursing home
• C. A child who lives in a country with poor sanitation and hygiene standards
• D. A sexually active 23-year-old man who works in a hospital

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is a sexually active 23-year-old man who works in a hospital. This individual is at the highest risk of contracting Hepatitis B due to exposure in a healthcare setting where potential bloodborne pathogens are present. Being sexually active also increases the risk of transmission through sexual contact. Choice A, a 45-year-old man with Type 1 Diabetes, is not directly associated with an increased risk of Hepatitis B. Choice B, a 75-year-old woman living in a crowded nursing home, is at risk for other infections due to the living environment but not specifically for Hepatitis B. Choice C, a child in a country with poor sanitation, is more at risk for water or foodborne illnesses rather than Hepatitis B transmission.

2. A 3-year-old had a hip spica cast applied 2 hours ago. In order to facilitate drying, the nurse should:

• A. Expose the cast to air and turn the child frequently.
• B. Use a heat lamp to reduce the drying time.
• C. Handle the cast with the abductor bar.
• D. Turn the child as little as possible.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a hip spica cast is applied, it is important to facilitate drying by exposing the cast to air and turning the child frequently, approximately every 2 hours. This helps ensure even drying and prevents skin breakdown. Using a heat lamp can cause burns and should be avoided. Handling the cast with the abductor bar is not necessary for the drying process and may cause discomfort to the child. Turning the child as little as possible is not recommended as regular turning helps prevent complications like pressure ulcers and stiffness.

3. A female patient is prescribed metformin for glucose control. The patient is on NPO status pending a diagnostic test. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of metformin?

• A. Diarrhea and Vomiting
• B. Dizziness and Drowsiness
• C. Metallic taste
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypoglycemia.' When a patient is on NPO status (nothing by mouth) and prescribed metformin, there is an increased risk of hypoglycemia due to the absence of oral intake. Metformin, as an anti-glycemic drug, can lower blood sugar levels, and without food intake, the risk of hypoglycemia is higher. Diarrhea and vomiting are common gastrointestinal side effects of metformin but are not the main concern in this scenario. Dizziness and drowsiness are potential side effects of some medications but are not typically associated with metformin. Metallic taste is a known side effect of metformin but is not the primary concern in this situation where hypoglycemia is more critical to monitor due to the patient's NPO status.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The client is placed on a cardiac monitor and receives 40 mEq potassium chloride in 1000 ml of 5% dextrose in water IV. Which of the following EKG patterns indicates to the nurse that the infusions should be discontinued?

• A. Narrowed QRS complex
• B. Shortened "PR"? interval
• C. Tall peaked "T"? waves
• D. Prominent "U"? waves

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A tall peaked T wave is a characteristic EKG pattern associated with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia refers to high levels of potassium in the blood, which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Tall peaked T waves are a red flag for potential cardiac issues and can indicate the need to discontinue potassium infusions. The other choices, such as narrowed QRS complex, shortened "PR"? interval, and prominent "U"? waves, are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Therefore, recognizing tall peaked T waves is crucial for the nurse to take prompt action in managing the client's condition.

5. A patient admitted to the hospital with myocardial infarction develops severe pulmonary edema. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit?

• A. Slow, deep respirations
• B. Stridor
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Air hunger

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with pulmonary edema following a myocardial infarction, the nurse should expect symptoms such as air hunger, anxiety, and agitation. Air hunger refers to the feeling of needing to breathe more deeply or more often. Other symptoms of pulmonary edema can include coughing up blood or bloody froth, orthopnea (difficulty breathing when lying down), and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (sudden awakening with shortness of breath). Slow, deep respirations (Choice A) are not typical in pulmonary edema; these patients often exhibit rapid, shallow breathing due to the difficulty in oxygen exchange. Stridor (Choice B) is a high-pitched breathing sound often associated with upper airway obstruction, not typically seen in pulmonary edema. Bradycardia (Choice C), a slow heart rate, is not a characteristic symptom of pulmonary edema, which is more likely to be associated with tachycardia due to the body's compensatory response to hypoxia and increased workload on the heart.

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