NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. A mother brings her 5-week-old infant to the health care clinic and tells the nurse that the child has been vomiting after meals. The mother reports that the vomiting is becoming more frequent and forceful. The nurse suspects pyloric stenosis and asks the mother which assessment question to elicit data specific to this condition?
- A. Are the stools ribbon-like, and is the infant eating poorly?
- B. Does the infant suddenly become pale, begin to cry, and draw the legs up to the chest?
- C. Does the vomit contain sour, undigested food without bile, and is the infant constipated?
- D. Does the infant cry loudly and continuously during the evening hours but nurses or takes formula well?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Vomiting undigested food that is not bile stained and constipation are classic symptoms of pyloric stenosis. Stools that are ribbon-like and a child who is eating poorly are signs of congenital megacolon (Hirschsprung's disease). An infant who suddenly becomes pale, cries out, and draws the legs up to the chest is demonstrating physical signs of intussusception. Crying during the evening hours, appearing to be in pain, eating well, and gaining weight are clinical manifestations of colic.
2. A 49-year-old female patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol (Inderal). Which finding is the best indicator that the medication has been effective?
- A. The patient reports no chest pain.
- B. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg
- C. Stools test negative for occult blood.
- D. The apical pulse rate is 68 beats/minute.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best indicator that propranolol has been effective in a patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices is when the stools test negative for occult blood. Propranolol is prescribed to decrease the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. This medication's effectiveness is primarily assessed by the absence of blood in the stools, indicating a reduction in the risk of bleeding from the varices. Monitoring for chest pain, blood pressure control, and a decrease in heart rate are important parameters in other conditions treated with propranolol, such as hypertension, angina, and tachycardia, but in this particular case, the absence of occult blood in the stools is the most relevant indicator of treatment success.
3. A patient's chart indicates a history of hyperkalemia. Which of the following would you not expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?
- A. Decreased HR
- B. Paresthesias
- C. Muscle weakness of the extremities
- D. Migraines
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Migraines.' Migraines are not a symptom typically associated with hyperkalemia. In acute hyperkalemia, one would not expect to see migraines. Symptoms of hyperkalemia often include muscle weakness, paresthesias, and cardiac manifestations such as bradycardia or even cardiac arrest. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are more commonly associated with acute hyperkalemia compared to migraines, making it the correct choice.
4. An infant with hydrocele is seen in the clinic for a follow-up visit at 1 month of age. The scrotum is smaller than it was at birth, but fluid is still visible on illumination. Which of the following actions is the physician likely to recommend?
- A. Massaging the groin area twice a day until the fluid is gone.
- B. Referral to a surgeon for repair.
- C. No treatment is necessary; the fluid is reabsorbing normally.
- D. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position until the fluid is gone.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A hydrocele is a collection of fluid in the scrotum that results from a patent tunica vaginalis. Illumination of the scrotum with a pocket light demonstrates the clear fluid. In most cases, the fluid reabsorbs within the first few months of life and no treatment is necessary. Massaging the groin area (Choice A) is not recommended as it will not help in the resolution of the hydrocele. Referral to a surgeon (Choice B) is not necessary at this stage since hydroceles often resolve on their own in infants. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position (Choice D) does not aid in the reabsorption of fluid and is not a recommended intervention for hydrocele management.
5. A 3-year-old child was brought to the pediatric clinic after the sudden onset of findings that include irritability, thick muffled voice, croaking on inspiration, being hot to the touch, sitting leaning forward, tongue protruding, drooling, and suprasternal retractions. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Prepare the child for an X-ray of the upper airways
- B. Examine the child's throat
- C. Collect a sputum specimen
- D. Notify the healthcare provider of the child's status
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct initial action is to notify the healthcare provider of the child's status. The presenting symptoms described, such as irritability, thick muffled voice, croaking on inspiration, being hot to the touch, sitting leaning forward, tongue protruding, drooling, and suprasternal retractions, are indicative of epiglottitis, a potentially life-threatening condition. Immediate medical attention is crucial in such cases. While preparing for an X-ray or examining the throat may be necessary, the priority is to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention by the healthcare provider. Collecting a sputum specimen is not relevant in this situation and would cause unnecessary delay. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize communication with the healthcare provider to expedite appropriate management and treatment.
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