Nursing Elites

1. A patient is undergoing a stress test on a treadmill and turns to talk to the nurse. Which of these statements would require the most immediate intervention?

• A. I'm feeling extremely thirsty and will get some water after this.
• B. I can feel my heart racing.
• C. My shoulder and arm are hurting.
• D. My blood pressure reading is 158/80

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: My shoulder and arm are hurting.' Unilateral arm and shoulder pain are classic symptoms of myocardial ischemia, indicating possible heart issues. In this scenario, immediate intervention is required, and the stress test should be halted. Choice A about feeling thirsty does not indicate an acute medical issue. Choice B mentioning heart racing is expected during a stress test. Choice D, a blood pressure reading of 158/80, while slightly elevated, does not present an immediate concern compared to the symptoms of arm and shoulder pain suggesting cardiac distress.

2. A 36-year-old male patient in the outpatient clinic is diagnosed with acute hepatitis C (HCV) infection. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. Schedule the patient for HCV genotype testing.
• B. Administer the HCV vaccine and immune globulin.
• C. Teach the patient about ribavirin (Rebetol) treatment.
• D. Explain that the infection will resolve over a few months.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action by the nurse is to schedule the patient for HCV genotype testing. Genotyping of HCV is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment regimen and guiding therapy decisions. Most patients with acute HCV infection progress to the chronic stage, so it is incorrect to inform the patient that the infection will resolve in a few months. There is no vaccine or immune globulin available for HCV, and ribavirin (Rebetol) is typically used for chronic HCV infection. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize genotyping to assist in treatment planning.

3. The nurse is caring for a newborn infant after surgical intervention for imperforate anus. The nurse should place the infant in which position in the postoperative period?

• A. Supine with no head elevation
• B. Side-lying with the legs flexed
• C. Side-lying with the legs extended
• D. Supine with the head elevated 30 degrees

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After surgical intervention for imperforate anus, the infant should be placed in a side-lying position with the legs flexed. This position helps reduce edema and pressure on the surgical site, preventing strain and promoting comfort. Placing the infant supine with no head elevation (Choice A) doesn't offer adequate support and may increase pressure on the area. Side-lying with the legs extended (Choice C) doesn't help reduce edema and pressure effectively. Placing the infant supine with the head elevated 30 degrees (Choice D) isn't recommended as it may not provide adequate support and comfort needed for recovery.

4. Following assessment of a patient with pneumonia, the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. Which assessment data best supports this diagnosis?

• A. Weak, nonproductive cough effort
• B. Large amounts of greenish sputum
• C. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute
• D. Resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Weak, nonproductive cough effort.' A weak, nonproductive cough indicates that the patient is unable to clear the airway effectively, supporting the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. In pneumonia, secretions can obstruct the airway, leading to ineffective clearance. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect ineffective airway clearance. Large amounts of greenish sputum (Choice B) may suggest infection or inflammation but do not specifically indicate ineffective airway clearance. The respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute (Choice C) and a resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85% (Choice D) are more indicative of impaired gas exchange or respiratory distress rather than ineffective airway clearance.

5. A 15-year-old female who ingested 15 tablets of maximum strength acetaminophen 45 minutes ago is rushed to the emergency department. Which of these orders should the nurse do first?

• A. Gastric lavage
• B. Administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) orally
• C. Start an IV Dextrose 5% with 0.33% normal saline to keep the vein open
• D. Have the patient drink activated charcoal mixed with water

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acetaminophen overdose is extremely toxic to the liver causing hepatotoxicity. Early symptoms of hepatic damage include nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. If not treated immediately, hepatic necrosis occurs and may lead to death. Removing as much of the drug as possible is the first step in treatment for acetaminophen overdose, this is best done through gastric lavage. Gastric lavage (irrigation) and aspiration consist of flushing the stomach with fluids and then aspirating the fluid back out. This procedure is done in life-threatening cases such as acetaminophen toxicity and only if less than one (1) hour has occurred after ingestion.

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