a nurse is caring for a patient undergoing a stress test on a treadmill the patient turns to talk to the nurse which of these statements would require
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers

1. A patient is undergoing a stress test on a treadmill and turns to talk to the nurse. Which of these statements would require the most immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: My shoulder and arm are hurting.' Unilateral arm and shoulder pain are classic symptoms of myocardial ischemia, indicating possible heart issues. In this scenario, immediate intervention is required, and the stress test should be halted. Choice A about feeling thirsty does not indicate an acute medical issue. Choice B mentioning heart racing is expected during a stress test. Choice D, a blood pressure reading of 158/80, while slightly elevated, does not present an immediate concern compared to the symptoms of arm and shoulder pain suggesting cardiac distress.

2. A patient with Glaucoma is verbalizing his daily medication routine to the nurse. He states he has two different eye drop medications, both every twelve hours. He washes his hands, instills the drops, closes his eyes gently, and presses his finger to the corner of his eye nearest his nose. After waiting 1 minute with his eyes closed, he instills the other medication in the same way. What is the nurse's best response?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is recommended to wait 10-15 minutes between different eye drop medications to give them time to absorb and avoid one medication washing another one out. Choice A is the correct response as the patient should wait more than 1 minute between administering different eye drop medications. Choice B is incorrect as the routine described by the patient needs improvement. Choice C is inaccurate as closing the eyes after instilling eye drops is a best practice to ensure proper absorption. Choice D is incorrect as pressing the finger to the corner of the eye nearest the nose is the correct technique.

3. An alcoholic and homeless patient is diagnosed with active tuberculosis (TB). Which intervention by the nurse will be most effective in ensuring adherence with the treatment regimen?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Directly observed therapy is the most effective means for ensuring compliance with the treatment regimen for a homeless patient with active tuberculosis. By arranging a daily noon meal at a community center where the drug will be administered, the nurse ensures that the patient is available to receive the medication and can directly observe the patient taking it. This method helps address the challenges faced by homeless individuals, such as lack of a stable living situation. The other options, such as having a friend administer the medication, giving written instructions, or educating about infecting others, may not be as effective in ensuring adherence, especially in the case of a homeless individual with alcoholism.

4. A patient is diagnosed with both human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and active tuberculosis (TB) disease. Which information obtained by the nurse is most important to communicate to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most critical information to communicate to the healthcare provider in a patient diagnosed with both HIV and active TB disease is that the patient is receiving antiretroviral therapy for HIV infection. This is crucial because drug interactions can occur between antiretrovirals used to treat HIV infection and medications used to treat TB. By informing the healthcare provider about the antiretroviral therapy, potential interactions can be assessed and managed effectively to optimize patient care. The other data provided, such as the Mantoux test result, chest x-ray findings, and presence of blood-tinged mucus, are important clinical information but are expected in a patient with coexisting HIV and TB and do not directly impact potential drug interactions between antiretrovirals and TB medications.

5. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) is reported for a patient with cirrhosis who has scheduled doses of spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix) due. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is low (hypokalemia), which can be concerning in a patient with cirrhosis who is already at risk for electrolyte imbalances. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can help increase the patient's potassium level and correct the hypokalemia. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to administer the spironolactone. Withholding the spironolactone could further lower the potassium level. Furosemide, on the other hand, is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss and worsen hypokalemia; hence, it should be withheld until the nurse discusses the situation with the healthcare provider. While the healthcare provider should be informed about the low potassium value, immediate administration of spironolactone is necessary to address the hypokalemia in this patient population.

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