NCLEX-RN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX RN Questions
1. A patient with bipolar disorder asks the nurse, "Why did I get this illness? I don't want to be sick."? The nurse would best respond with:
- A. People who develop mental illnesses often had a very traumatic childhood experience.
- B. There is some evidence that contracting a virus during childhood can lead to mental disorders.
- C. Sometimes people with mental illness have an overactive immune system.
- D. We don't fully understand the cause, but mental illnesses do seem to run in the family.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is, 'We don't fully understand the cause, but mental illnesses do seem to run in the family.' Current research suggests that while genetics play a role in the development of mental illnesses like bipolar disorder, it is not the sole factor. Environmental influences, life experiences, and other non-genetic factors also contribute significantly to the manifestation of mental disorders. Choices A, B, and C provide incorrect information that is not supported by current research. Traumatic childhood experiences, contracting a virus during childhood, and an overactive immune system are not established causes of bipolar disorder or mental illnesses in general.
2. The mother of a 2-month-old infant brings the child to the clinic for a well-baby check. She is concerned because she feels only one testis in the scrotal sac. Which of the following statements about the undescended testis is the most accurate?
- A. Normally, the testes descend by one year of age.
- B. The infant will likely require surgical intervention.
- C. The infant likely has only one testis.
- D. Normally, the testes are descended by birth.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that normally, the testes descend by one year of age. In young infants, it is common for the testes to retract into the inguinal canal when the environment is cold or the cremasteric reflex is stimulated. The exam should be done in a warm room with warm hands. It is most likely that both testes are present and will descend by a year. Option B is incorrect as not all cases of undescended testes require surgical intervention. Option C is incorrect because feeling only one testis does not necessarily mean the infant only has one testis. Option D is inaccurate as the testes do not normally descend by birth, but rather by one year of age. If the testes do not descend by one year, a full assessment will be needed to determine the appropriate treatment.
3. A client on lithium has diarrhea and vomiting. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Recognize this as a drug interaction
- B. Give the client Cogentin
- C. Reassure the client that these are common side effects of lithium therapy
- D. Hold the next dose and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Diarrhea and vomiting are manifestations of lithium toxicity. The priority action for the nurse is to hold the next dose of lithium and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level to confirm toxicity. This ensures patient safety and prevents further harm. Recognizing it as a drug interaction is not the first step in this scenario. Cogentin is used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) associated with antipsychotics, not lithium toxicity. Reassuring the client about these symptoms as common side effects of lithium therapy is inappropriate as they indicate a more serious issue than typical side effects like hand tremors, nausea, polyuria, and polydipsia.
4. A physician has written an order for '2.0 mg MS q 2-4 hr prn pain.' What is the nurse's appropriate response to this order?
- A. Give 2 mg of morphine sulfate to the client
- B. Give 20 mg of morphine sulfate to the client
- C. Contact the pharmacy to clarify the order
- D. Contact the physician to rewrite the order
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The physician's order contains several errors that could lead to potential harm to the client if not addressed. The use of '2.0' involves a trailing decimal point, which may lead to confusion regarding the intended dose of the drug. Additionally, the abbreviation 'MS' is considered a Do Not Use abbreviation by the Joint Commission, as it could refer to morphine sulfate or magnesium sulfate, leading to medication errors. While the order indicates the drug should be used for pain, the nurse should contact the physician to clarify the exact dose and specific drug to be administered, ensuring safe and accurate medication administration. Therefore, the correct response is to contact the physician to rewrite the order.
5. A nurse is caring for a dying client whose family wants to be with him in the operating suite. The surgeon, however, does not allow families to be present during surgery. The nurse recognizes this as an ethical dilemma. What is the initial step of the nurse when managing this situation?
- A. Contact the physician to amend the order for the client
- B. Document an account of the situation to ensure adequate coverage of details
- C. Consult with the medical ethics committee to determine a safe and workable solution
- D. Speak with the chief nursing officer to change the policy governing this situation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this type of situation, the first action of the nurse should be to address the immediate needs of the client by requesting the physician to make a change based on the circumstances. The primary concern is to ensure the client's well-being and honor the family's wishes, even if it means deviating from standard protocols. While documentation (Choice B) and consulting with higher authorities like the medical ethics committee (Choice C) may be necessary at a later stage, the initial step is to take action to meet the client's needs promptly. Speaking with the chief nursing officer to change the policy (Choice D) is not the most immediate or practical step in this situation, as the focus should be on the client's current care needs.
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