Nursing Elites

1. When a nurse is asked by a physician to speak to a colleague about their unprofessional behavior in front of a client but chooses not to confront the colleague and avoids the physician the next day, what type of conflict resolution is the nurse exhibiting?

• A. Accommodation
• B. Competition
• C. Avoidance
• D. Negotiation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse is exhibiting the conflict resolution strategy of avoidance. Avoidance involves ignoring the problem in the hope that it will go away on its own. In this scenario, the nurse avoids confronting the colleague and stays away from the physician, which does not address the issue directly. While avoidance may provide time for others to gain insight into the situation, it typically does not lead to a resolution of the underlying problems. Accommodation (A) involves yielding to the wishes of others, competition (B) entails pursuing one's own concerns at the expense of others, and negotiation (D) involves seeking a mutually agreeable solution through communication and compromise, none of which are demonstrated by the nurse in this situation.

2. Which of the following statements best describes compartment syndrome?

• A. An injury causes pain and tingling that starts in the buttock and travels down the leg.
• B. An injury causes swelling within muscle tissue that leads to anoxia of nerves and muscles.
• C. An injury causes permanent flexion of the interphalangeal joint, resulting in deformity.
• D. An injury causes pain and swelling of the median plantar nerve.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Compartment syndrome is characterized by swelling and increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to decreased blood flow and oxygen supply to nerves and muscles. This can result from various causes, such as trauma or the application of a cast after a fracture. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can lead to tissue necrosis. Choice A is incorrect as pain and tingling starting in the buttock and traveling down the leg are not specific features of compartment syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as permanent flexion of the interphalangeal joint is unrelated to compartment syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as pain and swelling of the median plantar nerve do not describe compartment syndrome.

3. When a blood pressure cuff is too wide for a client's arm, what type of reading might this blood pressure cuff produce?

• A. A normal reading
• B. An abnormally low reading
• C. An abnormally high reading
• D. A fluctuating reading

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a blood pressure cuff is too wide for a client's arm, it may produce an abnormally low blood pressure reading. This occurs because the oversized cuff can lead to an underestimation of blood pressure. It is essential to ensure that the cuff fits appropriately to obtain an accurate reading. An abnormally high reading (Choice C) is less likely with an oversized cuff, as it generally leads to lower readings. A normal reading (Choice A) is unlikely due to the inaccuracies caused by the oversized cuff. A fluctuating reading (Choice D) is not a typical result of using a cuff that is too wide; instead, it usually leads to consistently low readings.

4. A patient who has been diagnosed with vasospastic disorder (Raynaud's disease) complains of cold and stiffness in the fingers. Which of the following descriptions is most likely to fit the patient?

• A. An adolescent male
• B. An elderly woman
• C. A young woman
• D. An elderly man

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A young woman.' Raynaud's disease is most common in young women and is often associated with rheumatologic disorders like lupus and rheumatoid arthritis. This disorder involves vasospasm of the arteries, leading to reduced blood flow to the fingers and toes. Typically, Raynaud's affects the fingers, and in some cases, it can affect the toes. Only rarely does it involve other body parts such as the nose, ears, nipples, and lips. Choices B, C, and D are less likely as Raynaud's disease predominantly affects young women, although it can occur in other demographic groups as well.

5. Mrs. O is seen for follow-up after an episode of acute pancreatitis. Her physician orders a serum amylase level and the result is 200 U/L. Which of the following is a potential cause of this result?

• A. The client is pregnant
• B. The client has hypertension
• C. The client is in renal failure
• D. The client has pancreatitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated serum amylase level after pancreatitis may indicate another attack of the condition. It is common to order serum amylase as part of routine follow-up after pancreatitis. Elevated levels can also be seen in related gastrointestinal conditions like cholecystitis or an intestinal blockage. Therefore, in this case, the most likely cause of the elevated serum amylase level is a recurrence or ongoing pancreatitis. The other options, including pregnancy, hypertension, and renal failure, are not typically associated with an elevated serum amylase level in the context of follow-up after acute pancreatitis.

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