what kind of preventive measures is most likely to be used to prevent mary eden from falling because of her muscular frailness
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions

1. What kind of preventive measures is MOST likely to be used to prevent Mary Eden from falling due to her muscular frailty?

Correct answer: Physical therapy for muscle strengthening exercises

Rationale: Mary Eden, due to her muscular frailty, is at risk of falling. The most effective preventive measure in this case would be physical therapy focusing on muscle strengthening exercises. Strengthening exercises can help improve her muscle tone and stability, reducing the risk of falls. While range of motion exercises may be beneficial, they may not directly address her muscular frailty and stability concerns as effectively as muscle strengthening exercises. Occupational therapy aims to help individuals with activities of daily living and functional tasks, not confusion. Medications to induce more sleep can actually increase the risk of falls due to potential side effects like dizziness or disorientation, rather than preventing falls.

2. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to maintain the patency of a client's nasogastric tube?

Correct answer: Irrigate the tube as per physician's order

Rationale: The correct answer is to irrigate the tube as per physician's order. A client with a nasogastric tube is at risk of the tube kinking or clotting off, which can lead to complications such as abdominal distention or vomiting. To ensure the patency of the tube, the nurse should follow the physician's orders and facility policy to irrigate the tube with water or a solution as needed. Maintaining a constant connection to low-intermittent suction (Choice A) is not typically done to maintain tube patency. Suctioning the mouth and nose every shift (Choice C) is not directly related to maintaining nasogastric tube patency. Performing a daily fecal occult blood sample (Choice D) is unrelated to maintaining the patency of a nasogastric tube.

3. Mrs. G is seen for follow-up after testing for chronically high blood glucose levels. Her physician diagnoses her with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following information is part of this client's education about this condition?

Correct answer: C: Type 1 diabetes is caused by destruction of beta cells in the pancreas

Rationale: Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition where the immune system attacks and destroys the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to a lack of insulin production. Insulin is essential for regulating blood glucose levels and enabling cells to use glucose for energy. Understanding that type 1 diabetes results from the destruction of beta cells helps patients comprehend the need for insulin replacement therapy. Choices A and B are incorrect as type 1 diabetes is not primarily caused by diet or exercise habits. Choice D is incorrect because type 1 diabetes is not about the body's cells rejecting insulin but rather the lack of insulin production due to beta cell destruction.

4. Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?

Correct answer: Kussmaul respirations

Rationale: Mr. N is most likely exhibiting Kussmaul respirations. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation associated with conditions like metabolic acidosis. They are characterized by rapid, regular, and deep breathing. This type of respiratory pattern helps the body compensate for metabolic acidosis by attempting to blow off excess carbon dioxide. This pattern is different from Cheyne-Stokes respirations (choice B), which are characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by apnea. Biot's respirations (choice C) are characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by irregular periods of apnea, and Cluster breathing (choice D) involves clusters of breaths followed by periods of apnea, often seen in patients with brain injury or neurological conditions.

5. In which of the following examples would informed consent not be required?

Correct answer: Informed consent is not required in any of the above examples.

Rationale: In emergency situations where immediate treatment is necessary to prevent further harm or save a life, such as in option B where a child is rushed to the Emergency Room after a fall, informed consent may be waived to provide prompt care. In option A, though the patient is apprehensive about surgery and chooses not to learn the risks, informed consent is not required as it is the patient's right to refuse information. In option C, when an adult is in a coma with no next of kin listed, decisions may be made in the patient's best interest following legal and ethical guidelines. Therefore, informed consent is not needed in any of the scenarios presented.

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