NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A client with schizophrenia is taking loxapine. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the most important to report?
- A. Spasms of the tongue and face
- B. Orthostatic hypotension
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Spasms of the muscles of the tongue, face, neck, and back are indicative of acute dystonia, an extrapyramidal manifestation associated with loxapine use. Acute dystonia is a serious condition that can lead to airway obstruction and respiratory compromise. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting this finding to prevent potential harm to the client. Orthostatic hypotension, dry mouth, and increased appetite are common side effects of antipsychotic medications but are not as immediately life-threatening as acute dystonia. Monitoring and managing these side effects are essential for the client's overall well-being, but they do not pose the same level of urgency as addressing acute dystonia.
2. During a health history assessment of a new patient, which data should be the focus for patient teaching?
- A. Age and gender
- B. Saturated fat intake
- C. Hispanic/Latino ethnicity
- D. Family history of diabetes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is saturated fat intake. Behaviors play a crucial role in health outcomes, and saturated fat intake is a modifiable behavior that can significantly impact a patient's health. By focusing on educating the patient about reducing saturated fat intake, the healthcare provider can empower the patient to make positive changes. While age, gender, ethnicity, and family history are important factors in understanding a patient's health status, they are not behaviors that can be directly modified through patient teaching. Therefore, these factors are essential for developing an individualized care plan but are not the primary focus of patient teaching. Saturated fat intake directly relates to dietary habits, which can be altered through education and support to promote better health outcomes.
3. Teresa is an 84-year-old with stage 4 ovarian cancer who has been admitted for a bowel obstruction. She recently stated that she has decided that she doesn't want any further aggressive care and is requesting to be placed under hospice care. Her husband and daughter are supportive of her decision. She spoke with her oncologist about it, and he stated that he did not agree and wrote orders on her chart for chemotherapy. What would be the best first response to this situation?
- A. Give the patient a list of other oncologists
- B. Tell the family to report the doctor to the state quality board
- C. Notify the doctor that the patient refuses the chemotherapy
- D. Give the patient hospice information
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The patient has the right to refuse any treatment, and the doctor should be notified that the orders on the chart cannot be performed, with appropriate documentation. In this situation, the best first response is to notify the doctor that the patient refuses the chemotherapy. This step ensures that the patient's wishes are respected and that inappropriate treatments are not administered. It also opens up a dialogue with the oncologist, giving him the opportunity to understand the patient's perspective and potentially support her decision. Providing hospice information is a good follow-up step after addressing the immediate issue of refusing chemotherapy, as it allows the patient to initiate her own hospice evaluation if desired. Giving the patient a list of other oncologists or telling the family to report the doctor to the state quality board are not appropriate initial responses and may not align with the patient's wishes or autonomy.
4. Which of the following situations warrants a measurement for orthostatic hypotension?
- A. A 36-year-old male with a spinal injury
- B. An 86-year-old female with significantly altered mental status
- C. A 58-year-old female with near-syncope
- D. A 41-year-old male with acute deep vein thrombosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is a 58-year-old female with near-syncope. Orthostatic hypotension is a drop in blood pressure of greater than 20 mmHg systolic when moving from a sitting or lying position to standing. Patients at higher risk include those with syncope or near-syncope, symptomatic hypovolemia, and those prone to falls. The other choices are less likely to present with orthostatic hypotension. A spinal injury, altered mental status, and acute deep vein thrombosis are not directly associated with the immediate need for orthostatic hypotension measurement.
5. Which of the following interventions should be prioritized in the care of the suicidal client?
- A. Remove all potentially harmful items from the client's room
- B. Allow the client to express feelings of hopelessness
- C. Note the client's capabilities to increase self esteem
- D. Set a "no suicide"? contract with the client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: accessibility of the means of suicide increases the lethality. Allowing a patient to express feelings and setting a no suicide contract are interventions for suicidal client but blocking the means of suicide is priority. Increasing self esteem is an intervention for depressed clients but not specifically for suicide.
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