NCLEX-RN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX RN Questions
1. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.
- A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
- B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
- C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
- D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.
2. What is a key principle of patient teaching that must take place to ensure patient safety?
- A. Family members should be present
- B. Teaching must be documented
- C. Understanding must be confirmed
- D. Teaching should be provided by multiple staff members
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A key principle of patient teaching that ensures patient safety is the confirmation of understanding. To ensure patient safety, it is crucial to confirm that the patient comprehends the information provided. This confirmation can be achieved by having the patient repeat back the information or demonstrate understanding through return demonstration. Documenting the patient's understanding is essential to track the effectiveness of the teaching session and ensure that the patient is equipped with the necessary knowledge for their safety. Family members being present or having multiple staff members provide teaching may be beneficial in certain situations, but the primary focus should be on confirming the patient's understanding to enhance safety and promote effective learning.
3. What is the highest priority for post ECT care?
- A. Observe for confusion
- B. Monitor respiratory status
- C. Reorient to time, place, and person
- D. Document the client's response to the treatment
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The highest priority for post ECT care is to monitor respiratory status. This is crucial because a life-threatening side effect of ECT is respiratory arrest. While observing for confusion and reorienting the client are important aspects of post ECT care, they are not as critical as ensuring the client's respiratory status is stable. Documenting the client's response to treatment is also important for maintaining accurate medical records, but it is not the highest priority immediately post ECT.
4. What is involved in obtaining informed consent?
- A. An explanation of the reasons for the procedure
- B. A signature on a form indicating the client agrees to the procedure
- C. A statement affirming liability if complications arise during the procedure
- D. Both A and C
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Informed consent involves providing the client with an explanation of the reasons for the procedure, the potential risks, benefits, and available alternatives. It is essential for the healthcare provider to ensure that the client understands the information provided before agreeing to the procedure. While obtaining a signature on a consent form is part of the process, it is not the sole indicator of informed consent. Option C, which mentions liability statements, is incorrect as informed consent focuses on ensuring the client understands the procedure, not on affirming liability. Therefore, the correct answer is the explanation of the reasons for the procedure.
5. Which of the following abides by the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990?
- A. A nurse manager cannot cancel an interview with a potential employee because he has left-sided paralysis
- B. A nurse is allowed to have a leave of absence to recover after a back injury
- C. A nurse is mandated to receive 12 weeks off of work after having a baby
- D. A nurse manager must hire a nurse who uses a walker for mobility
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 prohibits discrimination against individuals with disabilities in employment practices, ensuring equal opportunities for qualified individuals. Therefore, a nurse manager cannot cancel an interview with a potential employee simply because the individual has left-sided paralysis. Doing so would be considered discriminatory under the ADA. Choices B, C, and D do not directly align with ADA requirements. Choice B involves medical leave, which can be covered under a different law; choice C refers to maternity leave, which is protected under other regulations; and choice D involves a hiring decision based on a mobility aid, not the individual's qualifications, which does not fall under ADA guidelines.
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