a client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked t waves on an electrocardiogram this manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels but diagnos
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX RN Questions

1. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

2. How can the dangers associated with wandering in Alzheimer's disease patients be prevented?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'All of the above.' Bed alarms, chair alarms, and door alarms are all effective measures to prevent the dangers associated with wandering in Alzheimer's disease patients. These alarms can alert caregivers when a patient tries to leave a designated area, helping to keep them safe. It is crucial to respond promptly to these alarms to ensure the patient's safety. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually as each type of alarm plays a vital role in a comprehensive wandering prevention strategy.

3. Because of budget cuts in the hospital, the nursing manager informs the staff that they must either rotate to other units more often or take their turns staying home from work. Which principle is this nurse manager demonstrating?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Veracity involves truth-telling, even in challenging situations. In this scenario, the nurse manager is being transparent about the need for staff to rotate units or take turns staying home due to budget cuts. This allows the staff to make informed decisions about their work schedules and potential impact on their pay and work areas. Option A, Justice, does not apply as the focus is on communication and transparency, not fairness. Option B, Paternalism, does not fit as it involves decisions made for others' well-being without their input, which is not the case here. Option D, Fraternity, pertains to unity among individuals, which is not the principle demonstrated by the nurse manager in this situation.

4. Rachel is a 48-year-old mother of three who has been admitted after a drug overdose in a failed suicide attempt. When she regains consciousness, she states that she is ashamed and embarrassed that she tried to take her own life. What is the most therapeutic response to Rachel's statement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most therapeutic response to Rachel's statement is to provide non-judgmental support and hope. By acknowledging the patient's feelings of shame and embarrassment and offering help and understanding, the nurse can help Rachel maintain her self-esteem. Choice A is not therapeutic as it may unintentionally convey guilt or further shame. Choice B is judgmental and confrontational, which can create a barrier to open communication. Choice C is dismissive and does not address Rachel's emotional state. The correct response (Choice D) acknowledges the patient's struggle, offers support, and conveys empathy, aligning with the nurse's role to treat all patients with respect and dignity in challenging situations.

5. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. While taking a history, the client tells the nurse he was admitted for the same thing twice before, the last time just 3 months ago. The nurse would anticipate the healthcare provider ordering:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of a client with a history of recurrent pulmonary embolism or contraindications to heparin, vena caval interruption may be necessary. Vena caval interruption involves placing a filter device in the inferior vena cava to prevent clots from traveling to the pulmonary circulation. Pulmonary embolectomy is a surgical procedure to remove a clot from the pulmonary artery, which is usually considered in severe or life-threatening cases. Increasing coumadin therapy to achieve a higher INR may be an option but vena caval interruption would be more appropriate in this scenario. Thrombolytic therapy is used in acute cases of pulmonary embolism to dissolve the clot rapidly, but in a recurrent case with contraindications to anticoagulants, vena caval interruption would be a preferred intervention.

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