Nursing Elites

1. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

• A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
• B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
• C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
• D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.

Correct answer: The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

2. What is the purpose of performing quality control?

• A. Create a paper trail to show that the laboratory is compliant with OSHA standards for quality control.
• B. Improve the odds that the results reported for any given test are as accurate and reliable as possible.
• C. Be required by law to be part of a quality assurance program.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: Improve the odds that the results reported for any given test are as accurate and reliable as possible.

Rationale: The primary purpose of performing quality control is to enhance the accuracy and reliability of test results. Quality controls are crucial for ensuring the reliability of each analyte tested. While quality control is not mandated by specific laws, accrediting bodies often require it to maintain accreditation. Creating a paper trail and legal requirements are not the primary objectives of quality control, making choices A and C incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is to improve the accuracy and reliability of reported test results.

3. A client must use a non-rebreathing oxygen mask. Which of the following statements is true regarding this type of mask?

• A. A non-rebreather can provide an FiO2 of 40%.
• B. A client should breathe through his or her mouth when using a non-rebreather.
• C. A non-rebreather offers a reservoir from which the client inhales.
• D. The mask of a non-rebreather should be changed every 3 hours.

Correct answer: A non-rebreather can provide an FiO2 of 40%.

Rationale: A non-rebreather mask is used for supplemental oxygen delivery for clients experiencing breathing difficulties. The non-rebreather mask includes a one-way valve that allows exhaled air to escape, preventing the rebreathing of carbon dioxide. The client inhales oxygenated air from a reservoir bag attached to the mask, providing high-concentration oxygen therapy. A non-rebreather mask can deliver FiO2 levels of up to 90%, making it an effective intervention for clients requiring high oxygen concentrations. Therefore, the statement that 'A non-rebreather can provide an FiO2 of 40%' is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clients should breathe through their nose and mouth, the mask offers a reservoir for inhaling oxygen, and the mask should be assessed and potentially replaced if soiled or damaged, not routinely changed every 3 hours.

4. After a lengthy explanation of a medical procedure, the patient asks many questions. The physician answers all of the questions to the best of their ability. The patient then gives consent for treatment. The costly equipment and supplies are put into place, and the patient is prepared. Two minutes before the procedure is to start, the patient begins panicking and changes their mind. Which of the following situations would be the best way to avoid litigation?

• A. Document that the patient originally gave consent and proceed if the benefits of the procedure outweigh the patient's wishes.
• B. Have the patient sign a form stating that they are refusing consent. If they refuse to sign, do not proceed with the procedure.
• C. Repeat the explanation of the procedure until the patient understands that having the procedure done is the best form of treatment. Do not proceed with the procedure.
• D. Do not proceed. Document the patient's refusal, have the patient sign a refusal to consent to treatment. If the patient refuses to sign the form, have a witness available to sign.

Correct answer: Do not proceed. Document the patient's refusal, have the patient sign a refusal to consent to treatment. If the patient refuses to sign the form, have a witness available to sign.

Rationale: In this scenario, the best course of action to avoid litigation is to respect the patient's right to refuse treatment, especially when changing their mind before the procedure starts. By not proceeding with the treatment, documenting the patient's refusal, and having the patient sign a refusal to consent form, you are following proper ethical and legal procedures. If the patient refuses to sign the form, having a witness available to sign further strengthens the documentation of the patient's decision. This approach ensures that the patient's autonomy and right to make informed decisions about their healthcare are respected. Choices A, B, and C do not prioritize the patient's right to refuse treatment and could potentially lead to legal issues if treatment is carried out against the patient's wishes.

5. The key to the prevention of a pandemic influenza is:

• A. Early detection
• B. Early antibiotic treatment
• C. Vaccination of at-risk populations
• D. Isolation of suspected cases

Correct answer: Early detection

Rationale: The key to preventing a pandemic influenza is early detection. Detecting influenza cases early allows for timely public health responses to limit the spread of the virus. Early detection helps in implementing measures such as isolation, treatment, and vaccination to prevent the development of a full-blown pandemic. Antibiotics are not effective against influenza viruses, so early antibiotic treatment is not the key to prevention. While vaccination of at-risk populations is important in controlling the spread of influenza, early detection is crucial as it allows for timely implementation of vaccination strategies. Isolation of suspected cases is a containment measure rather than a prevention strategy; the key to prevention lies in early detection to stop the spread before it becomes a pandemic.

Similar Questions