Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is post-op day #1 after a total hip replacement. Although the client was alert with a normal affect in the morning, by lunchtime, the nurse notes the client is confused, has slurred speech, and is having trouble with her balance. Her blood glucose level is 48 mg/dl. What is the next action of the nurse?

• A. Contact the physician immediately
• B. Administer a bolus of 50 cc of D20W through the IV
• C. Administer 10 units of regular insulin
• D. Give the client 6 oz. of orange juice

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client with a blood glucose level of 48 mg/dl is experiencing significant hypoglycemia, as manifested by confusion, balance difficulties, and slurred speech. The nurse should work to correct this situation as rapidly as possible. The first measure that can be performed quickly and will have fast results is to give the client something to eat or drink that contains glucose, such as 6 oz. of orange juice. Administering a bolus of D20W through the IV (Choice B) would be too aggressive and could lead to complications in this scenario. Administering regular insulin (Choice C) would further lower the blood glucose level, worsening the client's symptoms. Contacting the physician (Choice A) is important, but immediate intervention to raise the blood glucose level is crucial to address the client's hypoglycemia.

2. A client with schizophrenia is taking loxapine. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the most important to report?

• A. Spasms of the tongue and face
• B. Orthostatic hypotension
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spasms of the muscles of the tongue, face, neck, and back are indicative of acute dystonia, an extrapyramidal manifestation associated with loxapine use. Acute dystonia is a serious condition that can lead to airway obstruction and respiratory compromise. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting this finding to prevent potential harm to the client. Orthostatic hypotension, dry mouth, and increased appetite are common side effects of antipsychotic medications but are not as immediately life-threatening as acute dystonia. Monitoring and managing these side effects are essential for the client's overall well-being, but they do not pose the same level of urgency as addressing acute dystonia.

3. The discharge planning team is discussing plans for the dismissal of a 16-year-old admitted for complications associated with asthma. The client's mother has not participated in any of the discharge planning processes but has stated that she wants to be involved. Which of the following reasons might prohibit this mother from participating in discharge planning?

• A. The client is an emancipated minor
• B. The mother has to work and is unavailable
• C. The client has a job and a driver's license
• D. The mother does not speak English

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is that the client is an emancipated minor. Emancipated minors, even if they are under the age of 18, have the legal right to make decisions about their own healthcare and planning, which may include not wanting their parent involved in the discharge planning process. This status grants them independence from parental involvement in certain situations. The other choices are incorrect because the mother's work schedule, the client's job and possession of a driver's license, and the mother's language proficiency do not inherently prevent her from participating in the discharge planning process, unlike the legal status of being an emancipated minor.

4. Which of the following statements best describes compartment syndrome?

• A. An injury causes pain and tingling that starts in the buttock and travels down the leg.
• B. An injury causes swelling within muscle tissue that leads to anoxia of nerves and muscles.
• C. An injury causes permanent flexion of the interphalangeal joint, resulting in deformity.
• D. An injury causes pain and swelling of the median plantar nerve.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Compartment syndrome is characterized by swelling and increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to decreased blood flow and oxygen supply to nerves and muscles. This can result from various causes, such as trauma or the application of a cast after a fracture. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can lead to tissue necrosis. Choice A is incorrect as pain and tingling starting in the buttock and traveling down the leg are not specific features of compartment syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as permanent flexion of the interphalangeal joint is unrelated to compartment syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as pain and swelling of the median plantar nerve do not describe compartment syndrome.

5. Which of the following is a local sign of infection?

• A. Swelling
• B. Rapid pulse
• C. Fever
• D. High white blood count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A local sign of infection refers to symptoms that are specific to the area of infection. Swelling, heat, pain, and redness near the infected site are examples of local signs. In the context of infection, swelling occurs due to an accumulation of fluid and immune cells at the site of infection. Rapid pulse, fever, and high white blood count are more systemic responses to infection and not specific local signs. Rapid pulse can indicate systemic distress or sepsis, fever is a systemic response to infection, and high white blood count is a laboratory finding that suggests an immune response but is not a direct sign of infection at a specific site.

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