NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. A patient admitted to the hospital with myocardial infarction develops severe pulmonary edema. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit?
- A. Slow, deep respirations
- B. Stridor
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Air hunger
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a patient with pulmonary edema following a myocardial infarction, the nurse should expect symptoms such as air hunger, anxiety, and agitation. Air hunger refers to the feeling of needing to breathe more deeply or more often. Other symptoms of pulmonary edema can include coughing up blood or bloody froth, orthopnea (difficulty breathing when lying down), and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (sudden awakening with shortness of breath). Slow, deep respirations (Choice A) are not typical in pulmonary edema; these patients often exhibit rapid, shallow breathing due to the difficulty in oxygen exchange. Stridor (Choice B) is a high-pitched breathing sound often associated with upper airway obstruction, not typically seen in pulmonary edema. Bradycardia (Choice C), a slow heart rate, is not a characteristic symptom of pulmonary edema, which is more likely to be associated with tachycardia due to the body's compensatory response to hypoxia and increased workload on the heart.
2. The nurse is taking the health history of a patient being treated for Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis. After being told the patient has been smoking cigarettes for 30 years, the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?
- A. Increase in Forced Vital Capacity (FVC)
- B. A widened chest cavity
- C. Clubbed fingers
- D. An increased risk of cardiac failure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: 1. Increase in Forced Vital Capacity (FVC): Forced Vital Capacity is the volume of air exhaled from full inhalation to full exhalation. A patient with COPD would have a decrease in FVC. Therefore, this choice is incorrect. 2. A widened chest cavity: A patient with COPD often presents with a 'barrel chest,' which is seen as a widened chest cavity. Hence, a narrowed chest cavity is not an expected finding. 3. Clubbed fingers - CORRECT: Clubbed fingers are a sign of a long-term, or chronic, decrease in oxygen levels, which is commonly seen in patients with chronic respiratory conditions like Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis. 4. An increased risk of cardiac failure: Although a patient with these conditions would indeed be at an increased risk for cardiac failure, this is a potential complication and not an assessment finding, making it an incorrect choice.
3. A client is brought into the emergency department after finishing a course of antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. The client is experiencing dyspnea, chest tightness, and agitation. Her blood pressure is 88/58, she has generalized hives over her body, and her lips and tongue are swollen. After the nurse calls for help, what is the next appropriate action?
- A. Start an IV and administer a 1-liter bolus of Lactated Ringer's solution
- B. Administer 0.3 mg of 1:1000 epinephrine IM
- C. Administer 15 mg diphenhydramine IM
- D. Monitor the client until help arrives
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client experiencing an anaphylactic reaction will likely present with rash or hives, swelling of the lips, face, or tongue, hypotension, or dyspnea. In this scenario, the client is showing signs of anaphylaxis with dyspnea, chest tightness, hives, hypotension, and swelling of the lips and tongue. The next appropriate action would be to administer 0.3 mg of 1:1000 epinephrine intramuscularly. Epinephrine helps relax the muscles of the airway, improve breathing, and increase oxygenation, which is crucial in managing anaphylaxis. Starting an IV and administering fluids can be important but not the immediate priority. Diphenhydramine may be used as an adjunct therapy but should not delay the administration of epinephrine in the acute phase of anaphylaxis. Monitoring the client without providing immediate treatment can lead to a worsening of the anaphylactic reaction, potentially resulting in a life-threatening situation.
4. The nurse has been assigned to care for a neonate just delivered who has gastroschisis. Which concern should the nurse address in the client's plan of care?
- A. Infection.
- B. Poor body image.
- C. Decreased urinary elimination.
- D. Cracking oral mucous membranes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a neonate with gastroschisis, the bowel herniates through a defect in the abdominal wall without a covering membrane, which puts the neonate at high risk of infection. Immediate surgical repair is necessary due to the vulnerability of the exposed bowel to infection. Therefore, the most critical concern for the nurse to address in the plan of care of a neonate with gastroschisis is preventing infection. Poor body image is not a priority in neonatal care as neonates do not have body image concerns. Decreased urinary elimination is not typically a direct consequence of gastroschisis as it primarily affects the gastrointestinal system, not the genitourinary system. Cracking oral mucous membranes are not relevant to gastroschisis as it involves the lower gastrointestinal system, not the oral cavity.
5. A client is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg daily. The health care provider has written a new order to give metoprolol (Lopressor) 25 mg B.I.D. In assessing the client prior to administering the medications, which of the following should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider?
- A. Blood pressure 94/60 mm Hg
- B. Heart rate 76 bpm
- C. Urine output 50 ml/hour
- D. Respiratory rate 16 bpm
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Blood pressure 94/60 mm Hg.' Both digoxin and metoprolol decrease the heart rate. Metoprolol specifically affects blood pressure. Therefore, the heart rate and blood pressure need to be within normal range (HR 60-100 bpm; systolic BP above 100 mm Hg) to safely administer both medications. A blood pressure of 94/60 mm Hg indicates hypotension, which could be exacerbated by metoprolol, necessitating immediate reporting to the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D are within normal limits and do not pose immediate risks related to the administration of these medications.
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