Nursing Elites

1. The client is being prepared for insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter (Swan-Ganz catheter). What information does the client need to know about the purpose of this catheter insertion?

• A. Stroke volume
• B. Cardiac output
• C. Venous pressure
• D. Left ventricular functioning

Correct answer: Left ventricular functioning

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Left ventricular functioning. The purpose of inserting a pulmonary artery catheter is to obtain information about left ventricular functioning when the catheter balloon is inflated. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while a pulmonary artery catheter can provide information on stroke volume, cardiac output, and venous pressure, its primary purpose is to assess left ventricular function.

2. A patient admitted to the hospital with myocardial infarction develops severe pulmonary edema. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit?

• A. Slow, deep respirations
• B. Stridor
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Air hunger

Correct answer: Air hunger

Rationale: In a patient with pulmonary edema following a myocardial infarction, the nurse should expect symptoms such as air hunger, anxiety, and agitation. Air hunger refers to the feeling of needing to breathe more deeply or more often. Other symptoms of pulmonary edema can include coughing up blood or bloody froth, orthopnea (difficulty breathing when lying down), and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (sudden awakening with shortness of breath). Slow, deep respirations (Choice A) are not typical in pulmonary edema; these patients often exhibit rapid, shallow breathing due to the difficulty in oxygen exchange. Stridor (Choice B) is a high-pitched breathing sound often associated with upper airway obstruction, not typically seen in pulmonary edema. Bradycardia (Choice C), a slow heart rate, is not a characteristic symptom of pulmonary edema, which is more likely to be associated with tachycardia due to the body's compensatory response to hypoxia and increased workload on the heart.

3. You are caring for Thomas N., a 77-year-old man with edema in his legs and a fluid restriction. You have been assigned to weigh him daily. Based on these symptoms and the care he is receiving, what disorder is he most likely affected by?

• A. Diabetes
• B. Dementia
• C. Congestive heart failure
• D. Contiguous heart disease

Correct answer: Congestive heart failure

Rationale: Thomas N.'s symptoms of edema in his legs and fluid restriction point towards congestive heart failure (CHF) rather than dementia or diabetes. In CHF, patients often present with dependent edema in their legs due to excessive blood volume, leading to fluid intake restrictions and a low-salt diet. Daily weight monitoring is crucial in CHF to assess fluid retention or loss. Diabetes primarily affects blood sugar levels, dementia is a cognitive disorder, and 'Contiguous heart disease' is not a recognized medical term, making choices A, B, and D incorrect in this scenario.

4. While planning care for a 2-year-old hospitalized child, which situation would the nurse expect to most likely affect the behavior?

• A. Strange bed and surroundings
• B. Separation from parents
• C. Presence of other toddlers
• D. Unfamiliar toys and games

Correct answer: Separation from parents

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Separation from parents.' Separation anxiety is most evident from 6 months to 30 months of age and is the greatest stress imposed on a toddler by hospitalization. If separation is avoided, young children have a tremendous capacity to withstand other stress. The other choices, such as 'Strange bed and surroundings,' 'Presence of other toddlers,' and 'Unfamiliar toys and games,' may also have an impact on the child, but separation from parents is typically the most significant factor affecting behavior in a hospitalized 2-year-old.

5. Which finding would necessitate an immediate change in the therapeutic plan for a patient with grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. Weight loss of 2 lb (1 kg)
• B. Positive urine pregnancy test
• C. Hemoglobin level of 10.4 g/dL
• D. Complaints of nausea and anorexia

Correct answer: Positive urine pregnancy test

Rationale: A positive urine pregnancy test would require an immediate change in the therapeutic plan for a patient with grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy due to the teratogenic effects of ribavirin. Ribavirin needs to be discontinued immediately to prevent harm to the fetus. The other options, weight loss, hemoglobin level, and complaints of nausea and anorexia, are common adverse effects of the prescribed regimen and may necessitate interventions such as patient education or supportive care, but they would not mandate an immediate cessation of therapy as in the case of a positive pregnancy test.

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