NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. Mr. C is brought to the hospital with severe burns over 45% of his body. His heart rate is 124 bpm and thready, BP 84/46, respirations 24/minute and shallow. He is apprehensive and restless. Which of the following types of shock is Mr. C at highest risk for?
- A. Septic shock
- B. Hypovolemic shock
- C. Neurogenic shock
- D. Cardiogenic shock
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Mr. C, who has severe burns over 45% of his body, is at highest risk for hypovolemic shock. Burns lead to a loss of plasma volume, reducing the circulating fluid volume and impairing perfusion to vital organs and extremities. In this scenario, the signs of shock, such as increased heart rate, low blood pressure, shallow respirations, and restlessness, indicate a state of hypovolemic shock due to significant fluid loss. Septic shock (choice A) is primarily caused by severe infections, neurogenic shock (choice C) results from spinal cord injuries, and cardiogenic shock (choice D) stems from heart failure. However, in this case, the presentation aligns most closely with hypovolemic shock due to the extensive burn injury and its effects on fluid volume and perfusion.
2. Parents of a 6-month-old breastfed baby ask the nurse about increasing the baby's diet. Which of the following should be added first?
- A. Cereal
- B. Eggs
- C. Meat
- D. Juice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Cereal.' The guidelines of the American Academy of Pediatrics recommend introducing one new food at a time, starting with strained cereal. Cereal is often recommended as a first solid food for infants due to its soft texture and iron-fortified properties, which are important for the baby's development. Eggs and meat are common allergenic foods and are usually introduced later. Juice is not recommended for infants under 1 year old due to its high sugar content and lack of nutritional value compared to whole fruits.
3. Which response by the nurse best explains the purpose of ranitidine (Zantac) for a patient admitted with bleeding esophageal varices?
- A. The medication will reduce the risk of aspiration.
- B. The medication will inhibit the development of gastric ulcers.
- C. The medication will prevent irritation of the enlarged veins.
- D. The medication will decrease nausea and improve appetite.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is: 'The medication will prevent irritation of the enlarged veins.' Esophageal varices are dilated submucosal veins. The therapeutic action of H2-receptor blockers in patients with esophageal varices is to prevent irritation and bleeding from the varices caused by reflux of acidic gastric contents. While ranitidine can decrease the risk of peptic ulcers, reduce nausea, and help prevent aspiration pneumonia, the primary purpose of H2-receptor blockade in this patient is to prevent irritation and bleeding from the varices, not the other listed effects.
4. The nurse is collecting data on a child recently diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. Which question to the mother should elicit data associated with the cause of this disease?
- A. ''Has your child had any nausea or diarrhea?''
- B. ''Have you noticed any rashes on your child?''
- C. ''Did your child recently complain of a sore throat?''
- D. ''Did your child sustain any injuries to the kidney area?''
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Did your child recently complain of a sore throat?' Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection is a known cause of glomerulonephritis. In this condition, the child typically becomes ill with streptococcal infection of the upper respiratory tract, and then after 1 to 2 weeks, symptoms of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis can develop. This question aims to gather crucial information related to a potential trigger for glomerulonephritis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not pertain to a common cause or associated symptom of glomerulonephritis.
5. Following a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) in their 6-year-old child, the parent's remark: "We just don't know how he caught the disease!"? The nurse's response is based on an understanding that:
- A. AGN is a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules.
- B. The disease is easily transmissible in schools and camps.
- C. The illness is usually associated with chronic respiratory infections.
- D. It is not "caught"? but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) is not 'caught' but is a response to a previous B-hemolytic strep infection. AGN is generally accepted as an immune-complex disease triggered by an antecedent streptococcal infection occurring 4 to 6 weeks prior. It is considered a noninfectious renal disease. Choice A is incorrect because AGN is not a streptococcal infection that involves the kidney tubules but rather a noninfectious renal disease. Choice B is incorrect as AGN is not easily transmissible in schools and camps but is a result of a previous streptococcal infection. Choice C is incorrect as AGN is not usually associated with chronic respiratory infections, but with a previous streptococcal infection.
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