Nursing Elites

1. Mr. C is brought to the hospital with severe burns over 45% of his body. His heart rate is 124 bpm and thready, BP 84/46, respirations 24/minute and shallow. He is apprehensive and restless. Which of the following types of shock is Mr. C at highest risk for?

• A. Septic shock
• B. Hypovolemic shock
• C. Neurogenic shock
• D. Cardiogenic shock

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Mr. C, who has severe burns over 45% of his body, is at highest risk for hypovolemic shock. Burns lead to a loss of plasma volume, reducing the circulating fluid volume and impairing perfusion to vital organs and extremities. In this scenario, the signs of shock, such as increased heart rate, low blood pressure, shallow respirations, and restlessness, indicate a state of hypovolemic shock due to significant fluid loss. Septic shock (choice A) is primarily caused by severe infections, neurogenic shock (choice C) results from spinal cord injuries, and cardiogenic shock (choice D) stems from heart failure. However, in this case, the presentation aligns most closely with hypovolemic shock due to the extensive burn injury and its effects on fluid volume and perfusion.

2. When analyzing the results of the urinalysis collected preoperatively from a child with epispadias scheduled for surgical repair, which finding should the nurse most likely expect to note?

• A. Hematuria
• B. Proteinuria
• C. Bacteriuria
• D. Glucosuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Epispadias is a congenital defect characterized by the abnormal placement of the urethral orifice of the penis, often on the dorsum. This anatomical anomaly predisposes individuals to bacterial entry into the urinary tract, leading to bacteriuria. Hematuria, proteinuria, and glucosuria are not typically associated with epispadias. Hematuria refers to the presence of blood in the urine, proteinuria indicates protein in the urine, and glucosuria is the presence of glucose in the urine, none of which are commonly seen in epispadias.

3. A patient is admitted to the emergency department with an open stab wound to the left chest. What is the first action that the nurse should take?

• A. Position the patient so that the left chest is dependent
• B. Tape a nonporous dressing on three sides over the chest wound
• C. Cover the sucking chest wound firmly with an occlusive dressing
• D. Keep the head of the patient's bed at no more than 30 degrees elevation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct initial action for a patient with an open stab wound to the chest is to tape a nonporous dressing on three sides over the chest wound. This dressing technique allows air to escape during expiration but prevents air from entering the pleural space during inspiration, helping to prevent tension pneumothorax. Placing the patient so that the left chest is dependent or covering the wound with an occlusive dressing can trap air in the pleural space, leading to tension pneumothorax. Keeping the head of the bed elevated at 30 to 45 degrees helps facilitate breathing and is not the first action to take when managing an open chest wound.

4. The parents of a newborn with a cleft lip are concerned and ask the nurse when the lip will be repaired. With which statement should the nurse respond?

• A. Cleft lip cannot be repaired.
• B. Cleft-lip repair is usually performed by 6 months of age.
• C. Cleft-lip repair is usually performed during the first months of life.
• D. Cleft-lip repair is usually performed between 6 months and 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cleft-lip repair is typically performed during the first few months of life to address functional and cosmetic concerns at an early stage. Early repair can enhance bonding and facilitate feeding. While revisions may be necessary later on, addressing the cleft lip early is essential. Option A is incorrect as cleft lip repair is a common surgical procedure. Option B is incorrect as repair is typically done earlier than 6 months for better outcomes. Option D is incorrect as the usual timing for repair is within the first months of life, not between 6 months and 2 years.

5. The nurse has just admitted a client with severe depression. From which focus should the nurse identify a priority nursing diagnosis?

• A. Nutrition
• B. Elimination
• C. Activity
• D. Safety

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In caring for a client with severe depression, safety is a critical priority. The nurse must address precautions to prevent suicide as part of the care plan. While nutrition, elimination, and activity are important aspects of care, safety takes precedence due to the immediate risk of harm associated with depression. Ensuring the client's safety by implementing measures to prevent self-harm or suicide is the priority intervention. Addressing nutrition, elimination, and activity can follow once the client's safety is assured.

Similar Questions