NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. Mr. C is brought to the hospital with severe burns over 45% of his body. His heart rate is 124 bpm and thready, BP 84/46, respirations 24/minute and shallow. He is apprehensive and restless. Which of the following types of shock is Mr. C at highest risk for?
- A. Septic shock
- B. Hypovolemic shock
- C. Neurogenic shock
- D. Cardiogenic shock
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Mr. C, who has severe burns over 45% of his body, is at highest risk for hypovolemic shock. Burns lead to a loss of plasma volume, reducing the circulating fluid volume and impairing perfusion to vital organs and extremities. In this scenario, the signs of shock, such as increased heart rate, low blood pressure, shallow respirations, and restlessness, indicate a state of hypovolemic shock due to significant fluid loss. Septic shock (choice A) is primarily caused by severe infections, neurogenic shock (choice C) results from spinal cord injuries, and cardiogenic shock (choice D) stems from heart failure. However, in this case, the presentation aligns most closely with hypovolemic shock due to the extensive burn injury and its effects on fluid volume and perfusion.
2. Following mitral valve replacement surgery, a client develops PVCs. The healthcare provider orders a bolus of Lidocaine followed by a continuous Lidocaine infusion at a rate of 2 mg/minute. The IV solution contains 2 grams of Lidocaine in 500 mL of D5W. The infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops/mL. What rate would deliver 4 mg of Lidocaine per minute?
- A. 60 microdrops/minute
- B. 20 microdrops/minute
- C. 30 microdrops/minute
- D. 40 microdrops/minute
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the rate needed to deliver 4 mg/minute of Lidocaine, first, convert 2 grams to milligrams: 2 grams = 2000 mg. Then, set up a ratio between the total amount of Lidocaine (2000 mg) and the total volume of IV solution (500 mL): 2000 mg / 500 mL = 4 mg / x mL. Solving for x, x = 1 mL. Since the infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops per mL, multiplying by 60 microdrops/mL gives the correct rate of 60 microdrops/minute. This rate ensures the desired 4 mg of Lidocaine is delivered per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided information.
3. Why are subdural hemorrhages more common in the elderly?
- A. Increased anticoagulant use
- B. Increased risk of falls
- C. Brain atrophy
- D. Inconsistent care giving
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Subdural hemorrhages are more common in the elderly due to cerebral atrophy resulting from the natural aging process. This atrophy can lead to the stretching of bridging veins, making them more fragile and prone to tearing even with minor trauma. While increased anticoagulant use and a higher risk of falls are common in the elderly, brain atrophy plays a more direct role in the increased incidence of subdural hemorrhages. Inconsistent caregiving, on the other hand, is not a direct cause of subdural hemorrhages but may impact the overall management and outcome of such cases.
4. A woman in her third trimester complains of severe heartburn. What is appropriate teaching by the nurse to help the woman alleviate these symptoms?
- A. Drink small amounts of liquids frequently
- B. Eat the evening meal at least 2-3 hours before bedtime
- C. Take sodium bicarbonate after each meal
- D. Sleep with head propped on several pillows
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the third trimester, many women experience heartburn due to the pressure of the growing uterus on the stomach. Elevating the head while sleeping can help prevent gastric contents from refluxing back into the esophagus, thus reducing heartburn symptoms. Drinking small amounts of liquids frequently may exacerbate heartburn by increasing stomach distension. Eating the evening meal just before retiring can also worsen heartburn symptoms as lying down shortly after eating can promote reflux. Taking sodium bicarbonate after each meal is not recommended as it can disrupt the body's natural pH balance and lead to other complications.
5. A pregnant woman who is 36 weeks' pregnant and has hepatitis B is being informed by a nurse. Which of the following statements from the client indicates understanding of this condition?
- A. Now I know my baby will need a cesarean section.
- B. My baby will need two shots soon after birth.
- C. I will not be able to breastfeed.
- D. My baby's father does not need testing; I know I am the one with hepatitis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'My baby will need two shots soon after birth.' A baby born to a mother with hepatitis B should receive two injections soon after birth to reduce the risk of contracting the disease. Within the first 12 hours post-birth, the baby should receive the first hepatitis B vaccine and hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) for additional protection. Option A is incorrect because the need for a cesarean section is not directly related to the mother's hepatitis B status. Option C is incorrect as breastfeeding can be safe if managed properly. Option D is incorrect as the baby's father should also be tested for hepatitis B to prevent transmission to the newborn.
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