a nurse is caring for a client who was recently diagnosed with breast cancer the oncologist uses the tnm staging system to classify this case as t2 n
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers

1. A nurse is caring for a client who was recently diagnosed with breast cancer. The oncologist uses the TNM staging system to classify this case as T2, N2, M0. The nurse understands that TNM stands for:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The TNM staging system is a classification system for determining the size and extent of cancerous tissue. The TNM system helps providers to identify the most accurate forms of treatment. The T stands for tumor, the N stands for node involvement, and the M stands for metastasis. Choice A, 'Tumor, Necrosis, Metastasis,' is incorrect because it does not include the node involvement component. Choice B, 'Tumor, Node Involvement, Mastectomy,' is incorrect as it erroneously includes the treatment approach 'Mastectomy' instead of 'Metastasis.' Choice D, 'Therapy, Necrosis, Metastasis,' is incorrect because it includes 'Therapy' instead of the correct component 'Node Involvement.'

2. A patient is admitted to the emergency department with an open stab wound to the left chest. What is the first action that the nurse should take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct initial action for a patient with an open stab wound to the chest is to tape a nonporous dressing on three sides over the chest wound. This dressing technique allows air to escape during expiration but prevents air from entering the pleural space during inspiration, helping to prevent tension pneumothorax. Placing the patient so that the left chest is dependent or covering the wound with an occlusive dressing can trap air in the pleural space, leading to tension pneumothorax. Keeping the head of the bed elevated at 30 to 45 degrees helps facilitate breathing and is not the first action to take when managing an open chest wound.

3. Which pathologic condition is described as 'increased intraocular pressure of the eye'?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Glaucoma. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure in the eye, which can lead to optic nerve damage, vision loss, and blindness if left untreated. Detached Retina (A), Fovea Centralis (B), and Presbyopia (C) are not conditions associated with increased intraocular pressure like Glaucoma. Detached Retina is a separation of the retina from its underlying tissue, Fovea Centralis is a part of the retina responsible for sharp central vision, and Presbyopia is an age-related condition affecting near vision due to the loss of flexibility in the eye's lens.

4. Administration of hepatitis B vaccine to a healthy 18-year-old patient has been effective when a specimen of the patient's blood reveals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'anti-HBs'. The presence of surface antibody to HBV (anti-HBs) indicates a successful response to the hepatitis B vaccine. Anti-HBs is a marker of immunity and protection against hepatitis B infection. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) HBsAg indicates current infection with hepatitis B virus, C) anti-HBc IgG suggests past infection or immunity, and D) anti-HBc IgM is a marker of acute hepatitis B infection.

5. Following assessment of a patient with pneumonia, the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. Which assessment data best supports this diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Weak, nonproductive cough effort.' A weak, nonproductive cough indicates that the patient is unable to clear the airway effectively, supporting the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. In pneumonia, secretions can obstruct the airway, leading to ineffective clearance. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect ineffective airway clearance. Large amounts of greenish sputum (Choice B) may suggest infection or inflammation but do not specifically indicate ineffective airway clearance. The respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute (Choice C) and a resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85% (Choice D) are more indicative of impaired gas exchange or respiratory distress rather than ineffective airway clearance.

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