NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A nurse is caring for a client who was recently diagnosed with breast cancer. The oncologist uses the TNM staging system to classify this case as T2, N2, M0. The nurse understands that TNM stands for:
- A. Tumor, Necrosis, Metastasis
- B. Tumor, Node Involvement, Mastectomy
- C. Tumor, Node Involvement, Metastasis
- D. Therapy, Necrosis, Metastasis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The TNM staging system is a classification system for determining the size and extent of cancerous tissue. The TNM system helps providers to identify the most accurate forms of treatment. The T stands for tumor, the N stands for node involvement, and the M stands for metastasis. Choice A, 'Tumor, Necrosis, Metastasis,' is incorrect because it does not include the node involvement component. Choice B, 'Tumor, Node Involvement, Mastectomy,' is incorrect as it erroneously includes the treatment approach 'Mastectomy' instead of 'Metastasis.' Choice D, 'Therapy, Necrosis, Metastasis,' is incorrect because it includes 'Therapy' instead of the correct component 'Node Involvement.'
2. A child presents to the emergency department with colicky abdominal pain in the lower right quadrant. What disorder is suspected based on these symptoms?
- A. Peritonitis
- B. Appendicitis
- C. Intussusception
- D. Hirschsprung's disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The child's presentation of colicky abdominal pain in the lower right quadrant is classic for appendicitis. Appendicitis typically presents with localized pain that starts near the umbilicus and then shifts to the right lower quadrant. Peritonitis, on the other hand, is characterized by diffuse abdominal pain, tenderness, and guarding, usually resulting from organ perforation or intestinal obstruction. Intussusception is associated with acute, severe abdominal pain and currant jelly-like stools due to intestinal telescoping. Hirschsprung's disease, which lacks ganglion cells in the colon, manifests with symptoms like constipation, abdominal distension, and foul-smelling, ribbon-like stools.
3. A 53-year-old patient is being treated for bleeding esophageal varices with balloon tamponade. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?
- A. Instruct the patient to cough every hour
- B. Monitor the patient for shortness of breath
- C. Verify the position of the balloon every 4 hours
- D. Deflate the gastric balloon if the patient reports nausea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct nursing action for a patient with balloon tamponade for bleeding esophageal varices is to monitor the patient for shortness of breath. The most common complication of balloon tamponade is aspiration pneumonia. Additionally, if the gastric balloon ruptures, the esophageal balloon may slip upward and occlude the airway. Instructing the patient to cough every hour is incorrect as coughing increases the pressure on the varices and raises the risk of bleeding. Verifying the position of the balloon every 4 hours is unnecessary as it is typically done after insertion. Deflating the gastric balloon if the patient reports nausea is incorrect because deflating it may cause the esophageal balloon to occlude the airway, leading to complications. Therefore, monitoring for signs of respiratory distress is crucial in this situation.
4. A patient presents to the office with a pencil that has completely penetrated the palm of her hand. Which of the following treatments would be BEST in this situation?
- A. Assist the doctor while he sedates the patient and removes the pencil from her hand.
- B. Have the patient gently pull the pencil out of her hand and assist the physician with stitches.
- C. Wrap a gauze around the pencil, securing it as much as possible until the patient can get to a local emergency room.
- D. Tell the patient to go to the local emergency room. With a doctor's order, give the patient some aspirin for the pain.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Penetrating wounds that leave an object behind may have damaged important blood vessels. Removing the object may lead to significant bleeding. The correct approach is to gently wrap the wound with the object in place to help control bleeding and prevent further injury. The patient should be taken promptly to the nearest emergency room where healthcare professionals can safely and appropriately remove the object and provide necessary treatment. Choice A is incorrect because removing the pencil without proper medical evaluation can worsen the injury. Choice B is incorrect because pulling out the object can cause additional damage and bleeding. Choice D is incorrect because giving aspirin without knowing the extent of the injury and causing potential drug interactions can be harmful.
5. The nurse notes that a patient has incisional pain, a poor cough effort, and scattered rhonchi after a thoracotomy. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Assist the patient to sit upright in a chair.
- B. Splint the patient's chest during coughing.
- C. Medicate the patient with prescribed morphine.
- D. Observe the patient use the incentive spirometer.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to medicate the patient with prescribed morphine. A major reason for atelectasis and poor airway clearance in patients after chest surgery is incisional pain, which can worsen with deep breathing and coughing. The priority is to address the incisional pain to facilitate effective coughing and deep breathing, which are essential for clearing the airways and preventing complications. Assisting the patient to sit upright, splinting the patient's chest during coughing, and observing the patient using the incentive spirometer are all appropriate interventions to improve airway clearance, but they should be implemented after addressing the incisional pain with medication.
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