Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following conditions most commonly causes acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. A congenital condition leading to renal dysfunction.
• B. Prior infection with group A Streptococcus within the past 10-14 days.
• C. Viral infection of the glomeruli.
• D. Nephrotic syndrome.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis is most commonly caused by the immune response to a prior upper respiratory infection with group A Streptococcus. Glomerular inflammation occurs about 10-14 days after the infection, resulting in scant, dark urine and retention of body fluid. Periorbital edema and hypertension are common signs at diagnosis.

2. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has been diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B?

• A. Advise limiting alcohol intake to 1 drink daily
• B. Schedule for liver cancer screening every 6 months
• C. Initiate administration of the hepatitis C vaccine series
• D. Monitor anti-hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-HBs) levels annually

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B are at a higher risk for developing liver cancer. Therefore, it is essential to schedule them for liver cancer screening every 6 to 12 months to detect any potential malignancies at an early stage. Advising patients to limit alcohol intake is crucial as alcohol can exacerbate liver damage; thus, patients with chronic hepatitis B are advised to completely avoid alcohol. Administering the hepatitis C vaccine is irrelevant for a patient diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B since it is a different virus. Monitoring anti-hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-HBs) levels annually is not necessary as the presence of anti-HBs indicates a past hepatitis B infection or vaccination, and it does not require regular monitoring.

3. The mother of a child with hepatitis A tells the home care nurse that she is concerned because the child's jaundice seems worse. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. You need to change the child's diet.
• B. The child probably is infectious again.
• C. The jaundice may worsen before it resolves.
• D. You need to call the primary health care provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best response for the nurse in this situation is to explain to the mother that jaundice may seem to worsen before it eventually gets better. This is a common occurrence in hepatitis A. Option A about changing the child's diet is irrelevant to the concern raised by the mother and not supported by evidence. Option B suggesting the child is infectious again is incorrect and may cause unnecessary alarm as jaundice does not indicate reinfection. Option D, advising the mother to call the primary health care provider, is premature as the nurse can first provide education and reassurance regarding the expected course of jaundice in hepatitis A.

4. A patient with severe Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease is receiving discharge teaching. Which of these statements by the patient indicates a need for more teaching?

• A. ''I'm going to limit my meals to 2-3 per day to reduce acid secretion.''
• B. ''I'm going to make sure to remain upright after meals and elevate my head when I sleep.''
• C. ''I won't be drinking tea or coffee or eating chocolate anymore.''
• D. ''I'm going to start trying to lose some weight.''

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is ''I'm going to limit my meals to 2-3 per day to reduce acid secretion.'' This statement indicates a need for more teaching because large meals increase the volume and pressure in the stomach, delaying gastric emptying, and worsening symptoms of Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD). The recommended approach is to eat smaller, more frequent meals (4-6 small meals a day) to reduce acid reflux. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate good understanding of GERD management by highlighting the importance of staying upright after meals, avoiding trigger foods like tea, coffee, and chocolate, and addressing weight management, which are all appropriate strategies to manage GERD symptoms.

5. In a 24-year-old woman, the term used to define uterine bleeding in which there is no menstruation is:

• A. Oligomenorrhea
• B. Amenorrhea
• C. Menorrhagia
• D. Metrorrhagia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the correct term for the absence of menstrual periods in a woman of childbearing age. It is typically defined as no menstruation for at least three consecutive cycles or six months. Oligomenorrhea refers to infrequent or irregular menstrual periods rather than complete absence. Menorrhagia is characterized by excessive menstrual bleeding, not the absence of menstruation. Metrorrhagia involves irregular, acyclic bleeding between menstrual periods, which is different from the absence of menstruation.

Similar Questions