which of the following conditions most commonly causes acute glomerulonephritis
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet

1. Which of the following conditions most commonly causes acute glomerulonephritis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis is most commonly caused by the immune response to a prior upper respiratory infection with group A Streptococcus. Glomerular inflammation occurs about 10-14 days after the infection, resulting in scant, dark urine and retention of body fluid. Periorbital edema and hypertension are common signs at diagnosis.

2. Which clinical manifestations are recognized in nephrotic syndrome?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema. In this syndrome, there is loss of proteins, particularly albumin, in the urine leading to hypoalbuminemia, fluid retention, and subsequent edema. This results in elevated lipid levels like hypercholesterolemia, but not hypertension. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Hematuria, bacteriuria, fever, and weight loss are not typically associated with nephrotic syndrome, distinguishing it from other kidney disorders.

3. A client is in her third month of her first pregnancy. During the interview, she tells the nurse that she has several sex partners and is unsure of the identity of the baby's father. Which of the following nursing interventions is a priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening. The client's behavior places her at high risk for HIV. Testing is the first step in identifying and managing the risk of HIV infection. Early detection allows for timely interventions and better outcomes. While performing tests for sexually transmitted diseases (choice B) is important, addressing the immediate and potentially life-threatening risk of HIV takes precedence. Discussing the risk for cervical cancer (choice C) is not the priority at this time as HIV screening is more urgent. Referring the client to a family planning clinic (choice D) is not the immediate priority given the client's current high-risk behavior and the need to address the immediate threat of HIV infection.

4. Which of the following clients is most appropriate for receiving telemetry?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Telemetry is used to monitor the cardiac rhythms of clients with potentially unstable conditions or those rhythms that affect activities. Clients with syncope potentially related to cardiac dysrhythmia require continuous monitoring to detect any potential life-threatening dysrhythmias. Unstable angina can be monitored in a telemetry unit, but syncope with potential cardiac causes takes precedence. Clients with sinus rhythm and PVCs may not necessitate telemetry unless there are further indications of instability. A client who had a myocardial infarction 6 hours ago is typically monitored in an intensive care unit rather than a telemetry unit.

5. A physician suspects a patient may have pancreatitis. Which of the following tests would be most appropriate to diagnose this condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To diagnose pancreatitis, testing amylase and lipase levels is crucial. Amylase and lipase are enzymes produced by the pancreas that help digest carbohydrates and lipids. In pancreatitis, these enzymes are released in high amounts into the bloodstream due to pancreatic inflammation or damage. Elevated levels of amylase and lipase in blood tests strongly indicate pancreatitis. Choice A, CK and Troponin, are cardiac markers used in diagnosing heart conditions like myocardial infarction, not pancreatitis. Choice B, BUN and Creatinine, are kidney function tests, not specific to pancreatitis. Choice D, HDL and LDL Cholesterol Levels, are lipid profile tests used to assess cardiovascular health, not for diagnosing pancreatitis.

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