Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following conditions most commonly causes acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. A congenital condition leading to renal dysfunction.
• B. Prior infection with group A Streptococcus within the past 10-14 days.
• C. Viral infection of the glomeruli.
• D. Nephrotic syndrome.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis is most commonly caused by the immune response to a prior upper respiratory infection with group A Streptococcus. Glomerular inflammation occurs about 10-14 days after the infection, resulting in scant, dark urine and retention of body fluid. Periorbital edema and hypertension are common signs at diagnosis.

2. Mr. B is recovering from a surgical procedure that was performed four days ago. The nurse's assessment finds this client coughing up rust-colored sputum; his respiratory rate is 28/minute with expiratory grunting, and his lung sounds have coarse crackles on auscultation. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

• A. Tuberculosis
• B. Pulmonary edema
• C. Pneumonia
• D. Histoplasmosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's presentation of coughing up rust-colored sputum, increased respiratory rate, expiratory grunting, and coarse crackles on lung auscultation suggests the development of pneumonia. Pneumonia is characterized by lung tissue inflammation or infection, often caused by various organisms. Symptoms may include productive cough, dyspnea, and abnormal breath sounds. Tuberculosis (Choice A) typically presents with a chronic cough, weight loss, and night sweats and is less likely in this acute post-operative setting. Pulmonary edema (Choice B) is characterized by pink, frothy sputum, crackles throughout the lungs, and typically occurs in the context of heart failure. Histoplasmosis (Choice D) is a fungal infection that usually presents with flu-like symptoms and is less likely to manifest with the specific respiratory findings described in this case.

3. Septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock are all categorized as:

• A. Hypovolemic shock
• B. Cardiogenic shock
• C. Distributive shock
• D. Obstructive shock

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock are all types of distributive shock. Distributive shock is characterized by a decrease in systemic vascular resistance, leading to poor tissue perfusion. Septic shock is caused by severe infection, anaphylactic shock is an extreme allergic reaction, and neurogenic shock results from damage to the nervous system. Hypovolemic shock (Choice A) is characterized by a decrease in intravascular volume, cardiogenic shock (Choice B) is due to heart failure, and obstructive shock (Choice D) results from obstruction of blood flow. Therefore, the correct categorization for septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock is distributive shock.

4. A patient who has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) was hospitalized for increasing shortness of breath and chronic hypoxemia (SaO2 levels of 89% to 90%). In planning for discharge, which action by the nurse will be most effective in improving compliance with discharge teaching?

• A. Start giving the patient discharge teaching on the day of discharge
• B. Have the patient repeat the instructions immediately after teaching
• C. Accomplish the patient teaching just before the scheduled discharge
• D. Arrange for the patient's caregiver to be present during the teaching

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypoxemia interferes with the patient's ability to learn and retain information, so having the patient's caregiver present will increase the likelihood that discharge instructions will be followed. Having the patient repeat the instructions will indicate that the information is understood at the time, but it does not guarantee retention of the information. Giving discharge instructions just before discharge is not ideal as the patient is likely to be distracted and anxious at that time. Teaching the patient about discharge on the day of admission is not recommended because the patient may be more hypoxemic and anxious than usual, making it difficult for them to absorb and retain the information effectively. Therefore, arranging for the patient's caregiver to be present during the teaching session is the best option to ensure proper compliance and understanding of the discharge instructions.

5. A nurse is educating a patient about bimatoprost (Lumigan) eyedrops for the treatment of Glaucoma. Which of the following indicates that the patient has a correct understanding of the expected outcomes following treatment?

• A. "I should be experiencing less blurriness in my central field of vision"
• B. "This medication won't help my vision at all, but will keep it from getting worse."
• C. "My peripheral vision should be increasing back to its normal state, but will take a few weeks to do so."
• D. "This medication will help my eye restor intraocular fluid and increase intraocular pressure"

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Glaucoma cannot be cured, just treated. Treatment revolves around preventing further deterioration.

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