Nursing Elites

1. A one-month-old infant in the neonatal intensive care unit is dying. The parents request that the nurse administer an opioid analgesic to their infant, who is crying weakly. The infant's heart rate is 68 beats per minute, and the respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute. The infant is on room air, and the oxygen saturation is 92%. The nurse's response is based on which of the following principles?

• A. Providing analgesia during the last days and hours is an ethically appropriate nursing action.
• B. Withholding the opioid analgesia during the last days and hours is an ethical duty because administering it would represent assisted suicide.
• C. Administering analgesia during the last days and hours is the parents' ethical decision.
• D. Withholding the opioid analgesia is clinically appropriate because it will hasten the infant's death.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: All patients, regardless of age, have the right to die with dignity and be free from pain. In this case, the parents' request for an opioid analgesic to relieve the child's distress aligns with the principles of palliative care and ensuring comfort. Assisted suicide involves a conscious decision by the individual, which is not applicable to a 1-month-old infant. Both the nurse and the parents have an ethical duty to ensure the infant's comfort and well-being. Withholding opioid analgesia solely to hasten death is not appropriate, as providing pain relief is a crucial aspect of end-of-life care. Opioids can be administered to dying patients at any age to alleviate suffering without the intention of hastening death. Therefore, providing analgesia during the last days and hours is an ethically appropriate nursing action. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the decision to administer analgesia in this scenario is based on the best interest and comfort of the infant, not concerns about assisted suicide or hastening death. The ethical consideration is to provide compassionate care and alleviate suffering.

2. The physician wants to know if a client is tolerating their total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following laboratory tests is likely to be ordered?

• A. triglyceride level
• B. liver function tests
• C. a glucose tolerance test
• D. a complete blood count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The liver is crucial in processing nutrients and medications received through total parenteral nutrition. Liver function tests assess various enzymes produced by the liver, including prothrombin time/partial prothrombin time, serum glutamic oxaloacetic and pyruvic transaminases, gamma glutamyl transpeptidase, albumin, and alkaline phosphatase. Monitoring these enzymes can help determine if the liver is functioning properly to metabolize the nutrients from TPN. Triglyceride levels (Choice A) primarily evaluate the body's ability to clear fats, not specifically related to TPN tolerance. A glucose tolerance test (Choice C) is used to diagnose diabetes by measuring blood glucose levels after ingesting a glucose-rich solution, not directly related to TPN tolerance. A complete blood count (Choice D) assesses blood components such as red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but does not provide specific information about TPN tolerance.

3. In hanging a parenteral IV fluid that is to be infused by gravity, rather than with an infusion pump, the nurse notes that the IV tubing is available in different drop factors. Which tubing is a microdrop set?

• A. 15 drops per milliliter
• B. 60 drops per milliliter
• C. 20 drops per milliliter
• D. 10 drops per milliliter

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A microdrop set delivers 60 drops per milliliter of IV fluid. This allows for a more precise control of the infusion rate. The correct choice is B because it provides the desired microdrop rate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A delivers 15 drops per milliliter, which is a macrodrop set. C delivers 20 drops per milliliter, also a macrodrop set. D delivers 10 drops per milliliter, another macrodrop set. Therefore, the correct choice for a microdrop set is B.

4. Which medication should the nurse withhold if the client's blood pressure is 88/50?

• A. Rosuvastatin (Crestor)
• B. Enalapril (Vasotec)
• C. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
• D. Clopidogrel (Plavix)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Enalapril (Vasotec) is the correct answer. It is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can further lower blood pressure. Given that the client's blood pressure is already low at 88/50, administering Enalapril could exacerbate hypotension and compromise perfusion to vital organs. Rosuvastatin (Crestor), Digoxin (Lanoxin), and Clopidogrel (Plavix) are not contraindicated in the context of low blood pressure and may be administered safely.

5. Laboratory tests reveal the following electrolyte values for Mr. Smith: Na 135 mEq/L, Ca 8.5 mg/dL, Cl 102 mEq/L, and K 2.0 mEq/L. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the physician because of its potential risk to the client?

• A. Ca
• B. K
• C. Na
• D. Cl

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'K.' Normal serum potassium levels range between 3.5 and 5.5 mEq/L. Mr. Smith's potassium level of 2.0 mEq/L is significantly below the normal range, indicating hypokalemia, which can lead to serious risks such as cardiac arrhythmias. The levels of sodium (Na), calcium (Ca), and chloride (Cl) are within normal ranges, so they do not pose an immediate risk to the client's health. Therefore, the nurse should report the low potassium level to the physician for prompt intervention.

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