Nursing Elites

1. A nurse sees another nurse changing an intravenous (IV) solution because the wrong solution is infusing into the client. The nurse who changed the IV solution does not report the error. What should the nurse who observed the error do first?

• A. Report the nurse who changed the IV solution
• B. Document the error in the client's chart
• C. Call the client's health care provider
• D. Ask the nurse whether she intends to report the error

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The first thing the nurse who observed the error should do is ask the nurse whether she intends to report the error. Ensuring client safety is paramount, and all errors must be reported to the health care provider, but this is not the initial action. The client should also be assessed immediately. The nurse who discovered the error should complete an incident report and make appropriate documentation in the client's record. If the nurse who observed the error finds out that it will not be reported, it may be necessary to involve the supervisor. Therefore, the best course of action initially is to communicate with the nurse who made the error to understand her intentions regarding reporting.

2. People-related supervisory tasks include all of the following except:

• A. coaching
• B. encouraging
• C. target setting
• D. rewarding

Correct answer: C

Rationale: People-related supervisory tasks involve direct interaction with individuals performing the work. Coaching, encouraging, rewarding, evaluating, and facilitating are all part of these tasks as they focus on supporting and motivating employees. Target setting, on the other hand, is a task-centered responsibility that involves projecting goals or objectives to be accomplished. It focuses more on setting objectives and goals rather than directly interacting with individuals, making it the exception among the given choices.

3. Which of these statements is true regarding advance directives?

• A. They must be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years in order to remain valid.
• B. An advance directive is legally valid in every state, regardless of the state it was created in.
• C. A physician must determine when a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.
• D. They cannot be honored by EMTs (emergency medical technicians) unless signed by a doctor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement is that advance directives cannot be honored by EMTs unless they are signed by a doctor. EMTs are required to provide emergency care to a client, irrespective of their advance directive status, unless the directive has been signed by a doctor. When a client is brought to the hospital, physicians will assess the client and implement the advance directive if necessary. Advance directives do not need to be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years to remain valid; they remain in effect until changed. While advance directives are legally valid in most states, some states may not honor those created in other states, so it's advisable to check the new state's policies if a client moves. Additionally, it typically requires two physicians, not just one, to determine if a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.

4. When the nurse is determining the appropriate size of an oropharyngeal airway to insert, what part of a client's body should she measure?

• A. corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear
• B. corner of the eye to the top of the ear
• C. tip of the chin to the sternum
• D. tip of the nose to the earlobe

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct! When sizing an oropharyngeal airway, the nurse should measure from the corner of the client's mouth to the tragus of the ear. This measurement ensures that the airway is the appropriate length to reach the pharynx without being too long or too short. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not provide the correct anatomical landmarks for determining the size of an oropharyngeal airway. Measuring from the corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear is a standard method to ensure proper airway size and prevent complications during airway management.

5. The nurse should teach parents of small children that the most common type of first-degree burn is:

• A. scalding from hot bath water or spills
• B. contact with hot surfaces such as stoves and fireplaces
• C. contact with flammable liquids or gases resulting in flash burns
• D. sunburn from lack of protection and overexposure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most common type of first-degree burn in small children is sunburn, often due to lack of protection and overexposure to the sun. This type of burn highlights the importance of educating parents about using sunscreens and ensuring children are adequately protected from the sun's harmful rays. Choices A, B, and C describe scenarios that can lead to burns but are not the most common type of first-degree burn in small children, making them incorrect.

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