Nursing Elites

1. A nurse, monitoring a client in the fourth stage of labor, checks the client’s vital signs every 15 minutes. The nurse notes that the client’s pulse rate has increased from 70 to 100 beats/min. On the basis of this finding, which priority action should the nurse take?

• A. Continuing to check the client's vital signs every 15 minutes
• B. Notifying the registered nurse immediately
• C. Checking the client's uterine fundus
• D. Documenting the vital signs in the client's medical record

Correct answer: Checking the client's uterine fundus

Rationale: During the fourth stage of labor, the woman’s vital signs should be assessed every 15 minutes during the first hour. An increasing pulse rate is an early sign of excessive blood loss, as the heart beats faster to compensate for reduced blood volume. The blood pressure decreases as blood volume diminishes, but this is a later sign of hypovolemia. The most common reason for excessive postpartum bleeding is a uterus that is not firmly contracting and compressing open vessels at the placental site. Therefore, the nurse should check the client’s uterine fundus for firmness, height, and positioning. Checking the uterine fundus is the priority action as it helps determine if the client is bleeding excessively. Notifying the registered nurse immediately is not necessary unless the cause of bleeding is unclear and needs further intervention. Continuing to check vital signs without addressing the potential issue will delay necessary intervention. Documenting findings is important, but not the immediate priority when faced with a potential emergency situation like postpartum hemorrhage.

2. An adult client undergoes various diagnostic tests to determine the pumping ability of the heart. The nurse notes that the results of these tests indicate that the client’s cardiac output is 5 L/min. The nurse makes which conclusion?

• A. The client has a low cardiac output.
• B. The client has a high cardiac output.
• C. The client has a normal cardiac output.
• D. The client will need a blood transfusion.

Correct answer: The client has a normal cardiac output.

Rationale: A cardiac output of 5 L/min falls within the normal range for a resting adult, which typically ranges between 4 and 6 L/min. Cardiac output is calculated as the stroke volume (volume of blood in each systole) multiplied by the heart rate. Therefore, a cardiac output of 5 L/min is considered normal. Choices A and B are incorrect as they misinterpret the result as either low or high, which is not the case based on the provided information. Choice D is unrelated to the client's cardiac output and thus incorrect.

3. Which of the following actions should the LPN perform for a client with an active digoxin IV order? Select all that apply.

• A. Monitor ECG rhythm throughout administration.
• B. Administer the medication over at least 5 minutes.
• C. Monitor respirations during administration.
• D. Monitor the client’s pulse for 1 minute prior to administration.

Correct answer: A, D

Rationale: The correct actions for the LPN to perform for a client with an active digoxin IV order are to monitor ECG rhythm throughout administration and monitor the client’s pulse for 1 minute prior to administration. These actions are crucial as digoxin affects the heart's electrical activity, and it should not be administered if the client's pulse is less than 60 bpm. Monitoring respirations and blood pressure are not directly associated with digoxin administration. Administering IV medications is typically outside the LPN's scope of practice.

4. A nurse preparing to assist with data collection of the abdomen asks the client to void and then assists the client into a supine position. Which primary finding does the nurse expect to note on percussing all four quadrants of the abdominal cavity?

• A. Dullness
• B. Tympany
• C. Borborygmus
• D. Hyperresonance

Correct answer: Tympany

Rationale: The nurse expects to primarily note tympany when percussing the abdomen. Tympany should predominate because air in the intestines rises to the surface when the client is in a supine position. Dullness is usually heard over a distended bladder, adipose tissue, fluid, or a mass. Borborygmus, which refers to hyperperistalsis, is typically heard on auscultation, not percussion. Hyperresonance is present with gaseous distention, not the typical finding when percussing all four quadrants of the abdomen.

5. In conducting a health screening for 12-month-old children, the nurse expects them to have been immunized against which of the following diseases?

• A. measles, polio, pertussis, hepatitis B
• B. diphtheria, pertussis, polio, tetanus
• C. rubella, polio, pertussis, hepatitis A
• D. measles, mumps, rubella, polio

Correct answer: diphtheria, pertussis, polio, tetanus

Rationale: By 12 months of age, children should have received the DTaP (diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus) vaccine along with the polio vaccine. The MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine is not typically given until the child is 12-15 months old. Therefore, option B is correct as it includes vaccines that are usually administered by 12 months of age. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they include vaccines that are typically given after 12 months of age.

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