Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the findings of a physical examination documented in a client's record. Which piece of information does the nurse recognize as objective data?

• A. The client is allergic to strawberries
• B. The last menstrual period was 30 days ago
• C. The client takes acetaminophen (Tylenol) for headaches
• D. A 1-2-inch scar is present on the lower right portion of the abdomen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Objective data in a physical examination are findings that the healthcare provider observes or measures directly. In this case, a 1 × 2-inch scar present on the lower right portion of the abdomen is a physical observation. Subjective data are based on what the client reports, such as allergies (Choice A), the date of the last menstrual period (Choice B), and self-reported medication use for headaches (Choice C). While these pieces of information are important for assessing the client's health, they are considered subjective data because they rely on the client's self-report rather than direct observation by the healthcare provider.

2. Diagnostic genetic counseling, for procedures such as amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling, allows clients to make all of the following choices except:

• A. terminating the pregnancy.
• B. preparing for the birth of a child with special needs.
• C. accessing support services before the birth.
• D. completing the grieving process before the birth.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diagnostic genetic counseling provides clients with important information to make informed decisions regarding their pregnancy. Clients can choose to terminate the pregnancy, prepare for the birth of a child with special needs, and access support services before the birth based on the genetic testing results. However, completing the grieving process before the birth is not a typical choice during genetic counseling. The grieving process, if needed, may extend beyond the prenatal period, especially if the findings are concerning or indicate potential issues. Therefore, completing the grieving process before the birth is the exception among the provided options.

3. Which of the following is most likely to impact the body image of an infant newly diagnosed with Hemophilia?

• A. immobility
• B. altered growth and development
• C. hemarthrosis
• D. altered family processes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Altered Family Processes is a significant factor that can impact the body image of an infant newly diagnosed with Hemophilia. Infants are highly sensitive to the reactions of their caregivers, and a new diagnosis like Hemophilia can introduce stress and uncertainties into the family dynamics. This can affect the infant's sense of security, trust development, and how they perceive themselves. Immobility, while a potential long-term effect of Hemophilia, is not the immediate impact on body image for a newly diagnosed infant. Altered growth and development would take time to manifest and would not be an immediate concern after a recent diagnosis. Hemarthrosis, although a characteristic symptom of Hemophilia, is a physical manifestation rather than a direct influence on body image perception in a newly diagnosed infant.

4. A nurse is preparing to assess the function of a client's spinal accessory nerve. Which action does the nurse ask the client to take to aid assessment of this nerve?

• A. Smiling
• B. Clenching the teeth
• C. Shrugging the shoulders against the nurse's resistance
• D. Identifying by taste a substance placed on the back of the tongue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To assess cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory nerve), the examiner checks the sternomastoid and trapezius muscles for equal size. Equal strength is assessed by asking the client to rotate the head forcibly against resistance applied to the side of the chin and by asking the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance. These movements should feel equally strong on the two sides. The client is asked to smile as a test of the function of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve). The client's ability to clench the teeth is used to assess the motor function of cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve). The client's taste perception is used to assess the sensory function of cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve). Therefore, the correct action to assess the spinal accessory nerve is to ask the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance. The other options are used to assess different cranial nerves, making them incorrect choices.

5. A nurse assisting with data collection notes that the client exhibits rapid, involuntary oscillating movements of the eyeball when looking at the nurse. The nurse documents this finding using which term?

• A. Ptosis
• B. Nystagmus
• C. Scleral icterus
• D. Exophthalmos

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a nurse observes rapid, involuntary oscillating movements of the eyeball in a client, this is described as nystagmus. Nystagmus appears as a fine oscillating movement, most notable around the iris. It is important to assess for nystagmus when evaluating ocular muscle weakness. Mild nystagmus at extreme lateral gaze is considered normal; nystagmus in any other position is not. Ptosis refers to a drooping of the eyelid, not rapid eye movements. Scleral icterus is the yellowing of the sclera up to the cornea, indicating jaundice, not related to eye movements. Exophthalmos is a noticeable protrusion of the eyeball, typically seen in hyperthyroidism, not associated with rapid oscillating eye movements.

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