Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the findings of a physical examination documented in a client's record. Which piece of information does the nurse recognize as objective data?

• A. The client is allergic to strawberries
• B. The last menstrual period was 30 days ago
• C. The client takes acetaminophen (Tylenol) for headaches
• D. A 1-2-inch scar is present on the lower right portion of the abdomen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Objective data in a physical examination are findings that the healthcare provider observes or measures directly. In this case, a 1 × 2-inch scar present on the lower right portion of the abdomen is a physical observation. Subjective data are based on what the client reports, such as allergies (Choice A), the date of the last menstrual period (Choice B), and self-reported medication use for headaches (Choice C). While these pieces of information are important for assessing the client's health, they are considered subjective data because they rely on the client's self-report rather than direct observation by the healthcare provider.

2. Assisting with data collection, a nurse notes tenderness while lightly palpating a client's right lower quadrant of the abdomen. The nurse determines that this finding is most likely associated with which anatomic structure?

• A. Liver
• B. Spleen
• C. Pancreas
• D. Appendix

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the Appendix. Tenderness in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen is a classic sign of appendicitis, which is inflammation of the appendix. The appendix is located in the right lower quadrant. The other choices are incorrect. The spleen is located on the posterolateral wall of the abdominal cavity under the diaphragm. The pancreas is located behind the stomach. The liver fills most of the right upper quadrant and extends to the left midclavicular line.

3. Which of the following statements, if made by the parents of a newborn, does not indicate a need for further teaching about cord care?

• A. "I should put alcohol on my baby's cord 3-4 times a day."?
• B. "I should put the baby's diaper on so that it covers the cord."?
• C. "I should call the physician if the cord becomes dark."?
• D. "I should wash my hands before and after I take care of the cord."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Explanation: Parents should be taught that putting alcohol or other antimicrobials on the cord is no longer recommended for cord care. This can interfere with the natural healing process and may increase the risk of irritation or infection. Washing hands before and after providing cord care is essential to prevent the transfer of pathogens. Placing the baby's diaper below the cord allows it to be exposed to air and promotes drying, reducing the risk of infection. It is normal for the cord to turn dark as it dries, so calling the physician only if the cord becomes red, swollen, or has discharge is appropriate. Therefore, the statement '"I should put alcohol on my baby's cord 3-4 times a day."?' indicates a need for further teaching about cord care.

4. A nurse assisting with data collection notes that the client's skin is very dry. The nurse documents this finding using which term?

• A. Xerosis
• B. Pruritus
• C. Seborrhea
• D. Actinic keratoses

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dry skin is also called xerosis. In this condition, the epidermis lacks moisture or sebum and is often marked by a pattern of fine lines, scaling, and itching. Xerosis is the correct term for very dry skin. Pruritus is the symptom of itching, an uncomfortable sensation that prompts the urge to scratch the skin, but it does not specifically refer to dry skin. Seborrhea is a skin condition characterized by overproduction of sebum, leading to excessive oiliness or dry scales, not necessarily indicating very dry skin. Actinic keratoses are sun-related skin lesions that are premalignant and not associated with dry skin.

5. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

• A. Clozapine
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

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