Nursing Elites

1. What is the intent of the Patient Self Determination Act (PSDA) of 1990?

• A. Enhance personal control over healthcare decisions.
• B. Encourage medical treatment decision making prior to need.
• C. Establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney.
• D. Emphasize client education.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The purpose of the PSDA is to encourage medical treatment decision-making before it becomes necessary. This legislation aims to empower individuals to make their own healthcare choices in advance. Choice A is incorrect because while enhancing personal control over healthcare decisions is important, the primary goal of the PSDA is to facilitate medical decision-making before the need arises. Choice C is incorrect as the PSDA does not establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney; instead, it encourages individuals to create their own advance directives according to state-specific regulations. Choice D is incorrect because while client education is valuable, the main focus of the PSDA is on empowering individuals to plan for their future healthcare needs.

2. While assessing for costovertebral angle tenderness, a nurse percusses the area, and the client complains of sharp pain. The nurse interprets this finding as most indicative of which disorder?

• A. Liver enlargement
• B. Ovarian infection
• C. Spleen enlargement
• D. Kidney inflammation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing for costovertebral angle tenderness, sharp pain on percussion of the area indicates inflammation of the kidney or paranephric area. The correct technique involves placing one hand over the 12th rib, at the costovertebral angle, and thumping that hand with the ulnar edge of the other fist. The client normally feels a thud and should not experience pain. Ovarian infection, liver enlargement, or spleen enlargement are not associated with the costovertebral angle tenderness. Therefore, the correct answer is kidney inflammation.

3. The LPN is taking care of a client with a documented allergy to Penicillin. After rounds, the LPN notices that the client has an order for Cefazolin. Which of the following actions would be the least appropriate?

• A. The LPN clarifies the severity of the Penicillin allergy.
• B. The LPN discusses the order with the care team prior to administering Cefazolin.
• C. The LPN administers all ordered medications except for the Cefazolin.
• D. The LPN monitors the client after a test dose of Cefazolin is administered.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The least appropriate action is for the LPN to administer all ordered medications except for the Cefazolin. The LPN should always consider the client's documented allergy to Penicillin seriously. It is crucial to discuss the order with the care team before administering Cefazolin to ensure patient safety. Administering a medication that could potentially cause harm due to a documented allergy is unsafe practice. While monitoring the client after a test dose of Cefazolin is important, it should not precede clarification with the care team regarding the allergy and the appropriateness of the medication. Therefore, withholding the Cefazolin is the most appropriate action in this scenario.

4. What is the primary force in sex education in a child's life?

• A. school nurse
• B. peers
• C. parents
• D. media

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Parents are the primary force in sex education in a child's life. Parents play a central role in shaping a child's understanding of sex from an early age. They provide continuous guidance, values, and information about sex and relationships. While the school nurse is involved in formal sex education and counseling within the school setting, parents have the most direct and significant impact on a child's sex education. Peers become more influential during adolescence, but their information may not always be accurate or appropriate. The media also exert significant influence on children's perceptions of sex through various forms of entertainment like movies, TV shows, and video games, but parents remain the primary educators on this subject.

5. When determining a fetal heart rate (FHR) and noting accelerations from the baseline rate when the fetus is moving, a nurse interprets this finding as:

• A. A reassuring sign
• B. An indication of the need to contact the physician
• C. An indication of fetal distress
• D. A nonreassuring sign

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse notes accelerations from the baseline rate of the fetal heart rate, particularly when they occur with fetal movement, it is considered a reassuring sign. This indicates a healthy response to fetal activity. Reassuring signs in FHR monitoring include an average rate between 120 and 160 beats/min at term, a regular rhythm with slight fluctuations, accelerations from the baseline rate (often associated with fetal movement), and the absence of decreases from the baseline rate. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because accelerations in FHR with fetal movement are not indicative of the need to contact the physician, fetal distress, or a nonreassuring sign. These signs would typically be associated with other abnormal FHR patterns that would warrant further assessment and intervention.

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