the intent of the patient self determination act psda of 1990 is to

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX PN Practice Questions Quizlet

1. What is the intent of the Patient Self Determination Act (PSDA) of 1990?

A. Enhance personal control over healthcare decisions.
B. Encourage medical treatment decision making prior to need.
C. Establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney.
D. Emphasize client education.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The purpose of the PSDA is to encourage medical treatment decision-making before it becomes necessary. This legislation aims to empower individuals to make their own healthcare choices in advance. Choice A is incorrect because while enhancing personal control over healthcare decisions is important, the primary goal of the PSDA is to facilitate medical decision-making before the need arises. Choice C is incorrect as the PSDA does not establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney; instead, it encourages individuals to create their own advance directives according to state-specific regulations. Choice D is incorrect because while client education is valuable, the main focus of the PSDA is on empowering individuals to plan for their future healthcare needs.

2. The LPN is taking care of a client who is on Phenelzine (Nardil) for depression. Which meal would the nurse encourage the client to avoid?

A. steak and potatoes
B. prosciutto and cheese plate
C. orange juice and toast
D. carbonated water, shrimp and rice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'prosciutto and cheese plate.' Phenelzine (Nardil) is an MAOI (Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor), and clients on these drugs should avoid foods high in tyramine due to the risk of dangerous elevations in blood pressure. Prosciutto and aged cheeses are examples of foods rich in tyramine, so they should be avoided. Choices A, C, and D do not contain high levels of tyramine and are considered safe to consume while on Phenelzine.

3. A 17-year-old female was raped by a young man in her neighborhood. She is in the Emergency Department for evaluation and tests. After the procedure is completed, a rape crisis counselor (nurse specialist) talks to the client in a conference room regarding the rape. Implementing counseling by the nurse specialist for the raped victim represents:

A. assessment.
B. crisis intervention.
C. empathetic concern.
D. unwarranted intrusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Crisis intervention is the correct choice. Counseling by a nurse specialist after a traumatic event like rape falls under the Crisis Intervention Model. This approach aims to provide immediate support to individuals facing a crisis to enhance coping mechanisms. In this scenario, the nurse specialist is offering specialized care tailored to rape victims, helping the client navigate through the emotional aftermath of the traumatic experience. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A is not the correct answer as the nurse specialist is providing emotional support rather than conducting an assessment; C, while important, does not fully capture the specialized intervention being provided; and D is inaccurate as the nurse specialist's intervention is warranted and essential for the victim's well-being.

4. The client is assessing a client who has recently found out she is pregnant. Which of the following statements would be a priority for the nurse to follow up on?

A. "I am nervous about how painful labor will be."?
B. "I need to review my finances and make sure I am prepared to care for a child."?
C. "I hate this nausea that I've been having for a week."?
D. "I am preparing myself to do this on my own because I do not have any family nearby. But I have always been very independent."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should follow up on the client's lack of a support system. Even if there is no family in the area, there are supportive resources in the community that may help the client through the pregnancy and into motherhood. It is normal for the client to worry about labor, address financial concerns, and express displeasure from early pregnancy symptoms such as nausea. However, the priority is to address the client's statement about preparing to handle the pregnancy on her own due to the absence of nearby family support. This could have significant implications for the client's emotional well-being and ability to cope effectively throughout the pregnancy journey.

5. A client can receive the Mumps, Measles, Rubella (MMR) vaccine if he or she:

A. is pregnant.
B. is immunocompromised.
C. is allergic to neomycin.
D. has a cold.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client can receive the MMR vaccine if he or she has a cold without a fever since it does not preclude vaccination. Pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals cannot receive the MMR vaccine because the rubella component is a live virus that may cause birth defects and/or disease. Being allergic to neomycin is also a contraindication as per the American Academy of Pediatrics guidelines. Individuals who have experienced anaphylactic reactions to neomycin should not receive the measles vaccine. Therefore, option D 'has a cold' is the correct choice, as the presence of a simple cold does not prevent the client from receiving the MMR vaccine.