Nursing Elites

1. What is the intent of the Patient Self Determination Act (PSDA) of 1990?

• A. Enhance personal control over healthcare decisions.
• B. Encourage medical treatment decision making prior to need.
• C. Establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney.
• D. Emphasize client education.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The purpose of the PSDA is to encourage medical treatment decision-making before it becomes necessary. This legislation aims to empower individuals to make their own healthcare choices in advance. Choice A is incorrect because while enhancing personal control over healthcare decisions is important, the primary goal of the PSDA is to facilitate medical decision-making before the need arises. Choice C is incorrect as the PSDA does not establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney; instead, it encourages individuals to create their own advance directives according to state-specific regulations. Choice D is incorrect because while client education is valuable, the main focus of the PSDA is on empowering individuals to plan for their future healthcare needs.

2. A healthcare provider is assisting with data collection on a client for the major risk factors associated with coronary artery disease (CAD). Which modifiable risk factor does the healthcare provider obtain data on from the client?

• A. Age
• B. Ethnicity
• C. Hypertension
• D. Genetic inheritance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypertension.' Risk factors for CAD are categorized as modifiable and unmodifiable. Unmodifiable risk factors include age, sex, ethnicity, genetic predisposition, and family history of heart disease. Modifiable risk factors include increased concentrations of serum lipids, hypertension, cigarette smoking, obesity, and level of physical activity. In this case, hypertension is a modifiable risk factor that the healthcare provider would obtain data on. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because age, ethnicity, and genetic inheritance are unmodifiable risk factors for CAD, not modifiable ones.

3. A nurse is preparing to test cranial nerve I. Which item does the nurse obtain to test this nerve?

• A. Coffee
• B. A tuning fork
• C. A wisp of cotton
• D. An ophthalmoscope

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To assess the function of cranial nerve I (olfactory nerve), the nurse uses a wisp of cotton to test the sense of smell in a client who reports loss of smell. The nurse assesses the patency of the client's nostrils by occluding one nostril at a time and asking the client to sniff. Next, with the client's eyes closed, the nurse occludes one nostril and presents a non-noxious aromatic substance such as coffee, toothpaste, orange, vanilla, soap, or peppermint. Choice A, 'Coffee,' is incorrect because it is used to present non-noxious aromatic substances to assess cranial nerve I. Choice B, 'A tuning fork,' is used to assess the function of cranial nerve VIII (acoustic nerve). Choice D, 'An ophthalmoscope,' is used to assess the internal structures of the eye, not cranial nerve I.

4. When inspecting the ears for cerumen impaction, the nurse checks for which finding?

• A. Redness and swelling of the tympanic membrane
• B. An external auditory canal that is longer than normal
• C. The presence of edema in the external auditory canal
• D. A yellowish or brownish waxy material in the external auditory canal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When inspecting the ears for cerumen impaction, the nurse should look for a yellowish or brownish waxy material in the external auditory canal. Cerumen, also known as ear wax, is a secretion that can become impacted due to various reasons. It is produced by the vestigial apocrine sweat glands in the external ear canal. Cerumen may partially obscure the eardrum or totally occlude the ear canal. The other options, redness and swelling of the tympanic membrane, an external auditory canal that is longer than normal, and the presence of edema in the external auditory canal, are not indicative findings of cerumen impaction.

5. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

• A. Clozapine
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

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