Nursing Elites

1. What is the intent of the Patient Self Determination Act (PSDA) of 1990?

• A. Enhance personal control over healthcare decisions.
• B. Encourage medical treatment decision making prior to need.
• C. Establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney.
• D. Emphasize client education.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The purpose of the PSDA is to encourage medical treatment decision-making before it becomes necessary. This legislation aims to empower individuals to make their own healthcare choices in advance. Choice A is incorrect because while enhancing personal control over healthcare decisions is important, the primary goal of the PSDA is to facilitate medical decision-making before the need arises. Choice C is incorrect as the PSDA does not establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney; instead, it encourages individuals to create their own advance directives according to state-specific regulations. Choice D is incorrect because while client education is valuable, the main focus of the PSDA is on empowering individuals to plan for their future healthcare needs.

2. A 2-year-old child diagnosed with HIV comes to a clinic for immunizations. Which of the following vaccines should the nurse expect to administer in addition to the scheduled vaccines?

• A. pneumococcal vaccine
• B. hepatitis A vaccine
• C. Lyme disease vaccine
• D. typhoid vaccine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a 2-year-old child diagnosed with HIV, in addition to the scheduled vaccines, the nurse should expect to administer the pneumococcal vaccine. Children with HIV are at an increased risk of infections, including pneumococcal disease. The pneumococcal vaccine helps protect against serious pneumococcal infections like pneumonia, meningitis, and bacteremia. The hepatitis A vaccine is not specifically recommended for all children with HIV unless there are specific risk factors. The Lyme disease vaccine is for individuals at risk for Lyme disease, typically between the ages of 15 and 70, transmitted by ticks. The typhoid vaccine is usually recommended for individuals traveling to endemic areas or working in specific high-risk occupations like microbiology laboratories dealing with Salmonella typhi.

3. Distribution of a drug to various tissues depends on the amount of cardiac output to each type of tissue. Which tissue would receive the highest amount of cardiac output and thus the highest amount of a drug?

• A. skin
• B. adipose tissue
• C. skeletal muscle
• D. myocardium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The tissue that would receive the highest amount of cardiac output and thus the highest amount of a drug is the myocardium. Highly perfused tissues include vital organs like the brain, heart, kidneys, adrenal glands, and liver. The myocardium, being part of the heart, receives a significant amount of cardiac output. Choices A (skin) and B (adipose tissue) are poorly perfused tissues and would not receive high amounts of cardiac output. Choice C (skeletal muscle) is also less perfused compared to the myocardium.

4. A healthcare professional reviewing a client's record notes documentation that the client has melena. How does the healthcare professional detect the presence of melena?

• A. By checking the client's urine for blood
• B. By checking the client's stool for blood
• C. By checking the client's urine for a decrease in output
• D. By checking the client's bowel movements for diarrhea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Melena' is the term used to describe abnormal black tarry stool that has a distinctive odor and contains digested blood. It usually results from bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract and is often a sign of peptic ulcer disease or small bowel disease. The presence of melena is detected by checking the client's stool for blood. Blood in the client's urine, decreased urine output, and diarrhea are not associated with the assessment for melena.

5. A nurse preparing to examine a client’s eyes plans to perform a confrontation test. The nurse tells the client that this test measures which aspect of vision?

• A. Near vision
• B. Color vision
• C. Distant vision
• D. Peripheral vision

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Peripheral vision. The confrontation test is a gross measure of peripheral vision. It compares the client’s peripheral vision with the nurse’s, assuming that the nurse’s vision is normal. During the test, the nurse positions themselves at eye level with the client, about 2 feet away, and directs the client to cover one eye with an opaque card. The nurse covers the eye opposite the client’s covered one and slowly moves a target (like a pencil) from the periphery in several directions. The client is asked to indicate when they see the target, which should coincide with when the nurse sees it. Near vision is tested using a handheld vision screener with various sizes of print, color vision with the Ishihara test, and distant vision with a Snellen chart. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not measure peripheral vision, which is the focus of the confrontation test.

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