Nursing Elites

1. What is the intent of the Patient Self Determination Act (PSDA) of 1990?

• A. Enhance personal control over healthcare decisions.
• B. Encourage medical treatment decision making prior to need.
• C. Establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney.
• D. Emphasize client education.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The purpose of the PSDA is to encourage medical treatment decision-making before it becomes necessary. This legislation aims to empower individuals to make their own healthcare choices in advance. Choice A is incorrect because while enhancing personal control over healthcare decisions is important, the primary goal of the PSDA is to facilitate medical decision-making before the need arises. Choice C is incorrect as the PSDA does not establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney; instead, it encourages individuals to create their own advance directives according to state-specific regulations. Choice D is incorrect because while client education is valuable, the main focus of the PSDA is on empowering individuals to plan for their future healthcare needs.

2. A nurse is reviewing the findings of a physical examination documented in a client's record. Which piece of information does the nurse recognize as objective data?

• A. The client is allergic to strawberries
• B. The last menstrual period was 30 days ago
• C. The client takes acetaminophen (Tylenol) for headaches
• D. A 1-2-inch scar is present on the lower right portion of the abdomen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Objective data in a physical examination are findings that the healthcare provider observes or measures directly. In this case, a 1 × 2-inch scar present on the lower right portion of the abdomen is a physical observation. Subjective data are based on what the client reports, such as allergies (Choice A), the date of the last menstrual period (Choice B), and self-reported medication use for headaches (Choice C). While these pieces of information are important for assessing the client's health, they are considered subjective data because they rely on the client's self-report rather than direct observation by the healthcare provider.

3. The LPN on shift notices a client coming into the clinic with bruises on his arm. The client seems very afraid and doesn't speak much, which concerns the nurse because these are signs of physical abuse. The nurse should ____.

• A. use therapeutic communication to talk to the client and offer support while reporting the findings to the appropriate authorities based on the state requirements and protocols
• B. report the findings to the appropriate authorities based on the state requirements and protocols
• C. ignore the bruises, as this is not why the client is being treated and is not appropriate for the nurse to address
• D. report the suspected abuse to another nurse and collaborate on how to handle it

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of suspected abuse, healthcare providers have a legal and ethical obligation to report such incidents to the relevant authorities. This not only ensures the safety and well-being of the client but also helps in preventing further harm. Option A is incorrect as attempting to gather evidence of abuse may interfere with the official investigation and is not the nurse's role. Offering support is crucial, but the priority is to report the findings to the appropriate authorities. Option C is incorrect as ignoring signs of abuse goes against the duty of a healthcare provider to protect their clients. Option D is incorrect as reporting suspected abuse to other nurses without involving the appropriate authorities may delay necessary actions and intervention.

4. A 45-year-old client with type I diabetes is in need of support services upon discharge from a skilled rehabilitation unit. Which of the following services is an example of a skilled support service?

• A. shopping for groceries
• B. house cleaning
• C. transportation to physician's visits
• D. medication instruction

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is medication instruction. This is a skilled service that requires specialized knowledge and training to provide proper guidance on medication management for a client with type I diabetes. Grocery shopping, house cleaning, and transportation services are considered unskilled services as they are typically offered by volunteer or fee-for-service agencies and do not require specialized medical expertise. Medication instruction, on the other hand, involves educating the client on how to properly take medications, understand potential side effects, and manage their medication regimen effectively, which necessitates a high level of expertise and training.

5. An assessment of the skull of a normal 10-month-old baby should identify which of the following?

• A. closure of the posterior fontanel.
• B. closure of the anterior fontanel.
• C. overlap of cranial bones.
• D. ossification of the sutures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the closure of the posterior fontanel. By 10 months of age, the posterior fontanel should be closed. The anterior fontanel typically closes around 12-18 months of age. Overlapping of cranial bones is not a normal finding and may indicate craniosynostosis, a condition where the sutures close too early. Ossification of the sutures is also not a normal finding in a 10-month-old baby as the sutures should remain open to allow for the growth of the skull.

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