Nursing Elites

1. What is the intent of the Patient Self Determination Act (PSDA) of 1990?

• A. Enhance personal control over healthcare decisions.
• B. Encourage medical treatment decision making prior to need.
• C. Establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney.
• D. Emphasize client education.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The purpose of the PSDA is to encourage medical treatment decision-making before it becomes necessary. This legislation aims to empower individuals to make their own healthcare choices in advance. Choice A is incorrect because while enhancing personal control over healthcare decisions is important, the primary goal of the PSDA is to facilitate medical decision-making before the need arises. Choice C is incorrect as the PSDA does not establish a federal standard for living wills and durable powers of attorney; instead, it encourages individuals to create their own advance directives according to state-specific regulations. Choice D is incorrect because while client education is valuable, the main focus of the PSDA is on empowering individuals to plan for their future healthcare needs.

2. Which of the following are included in the Rights of Medication Administration? Select all that apply.

• A. Right dose, right time, right explanation, right client, right route
• B. Right dose, right time, right client, right route
• C. Right dose, right time, right client
• D. Right time, right explanation, right client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Rights of Medication Administration include the right client, right drug, right dose, right route, and right time. An additional right that is sometimes included is the right documentation. The correct answer includes the essential rights that must be ensured during medication administration. Choice A is incorrect as 'right explanation' is not part of the traditional Rights of Medication Administration. Choice B is incorrect as 'right explanation' is not included, and choice C is missing the right route. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks the right dose and right route.

3. The LPN needs to determine the client's respiratory rate. What is the best technique to do this?

• A. Tell the client you need to count their respiratory rate.
• B. Subtly watch the client from across the room when they are doing an activity.
• C. Ask the client to sit still for 30 seconds.
• D. Count respirations while pretending to check the client's pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best technique to determine a client's respiratory rate is to count respirations while pretending to check the client's pulse. You should not inform the client that you are counting their respirations, as this might lead to a change in their breathing pattern. Pretending to check the pulse allows you to be close to the client without revealing that you are assessing their respiratory rate. Asking the client to sit still may not be as effective, as it may cause them to concentrate on their breathing. Watching from across the room may not provide an accurate assessment of respirations, as they might be difficult to observe.

4. A nurse assisting with data collection is preparing to auscultate for bowel sounds. The nurse should use which technique?

• A. Begin in the right lower quadrant.
• B. Use the bell end of the stethoscope.
• C. Hold the stethoscope lightly against the skin.
• D. Listen for at least 5 minutes before deciding that bowel sounds are absent.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To auscultate for bowel sounds, the nurse should use the diaphragm end piece of the stethoscope as bowel sounds are relatively high pitched. The stethoscope should be held lightly against the skin to avoid stimulating more bowel sounds. The nurse should begin in the right lower quadrant at the ileocecal valve, where bowel sounds are normally present. It is recommended to listen for 5 minutes before deciding that bowel sounds are absent to ensure a thorough assessment. Choice B is incorrect because the bell end is used for low-pitched sounds such as heart sounds. Choice C is incorrect as holding the stethoscope firmly and deeply can cause unnecessary bowel sound stimulation. Choice D is incorrect as listening for 1 minute is insufficient to determine the presence or absence of bowel sounds.

5. A woman in labor whose cervix is not completely dilated is pushing strenuously during contractions. Which method of breathing should the nurse encourage the woman to perform to help her overcome the urge to push?

• A. Holding her breath and using the Valsalva maneuver
• B. Blowing repeatedly in short puffs
• C. Cleansing breaths
• D. Deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end, respectively, of each contraction

Correct answer: B

Rationale: If a woman pushes strenuously before the cervix is completely dilated, she risks injury to the cervix and the fetal head. Blowing prevents closure of the glottis and breath-holding, helping overcome the urge to push strenuously. The woman would be encouraged to blow repeatedly, using short puffs, when the urge to push is strong. This breathing technique allows for controlled exhalation and helps prevent unnecessary pushing. Cleansing breaths (deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end of each contraction) are encouraged during the first stage of labor to provide oxygenation and reduce myometrial hypoxia and to promote relaxation. Holding her breath and using the Valsalva maneuver (choice A) is not recommended as it can increase intra-abdominal pressure and decrease venous return, potentially compromising fetal oxygenation. Deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end of each contraction (choice D) are more suitable for relaxation and oxygenation purposes rather than managing the urge to push.

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