Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning to administer an oral antibiotic to a client with a communicable disease. The client refuses the medication and tells the nurse that the medication causes abdominal cramping. The nurse responds, 'The medication is needed to prevent the spread of infection, and if you don't take it orally I will have to give it to you in an intramuscular injection.' Which statement accurately describes the nurse's response to the client?

• A. The nurse is justified in administering the medication by way of the intramuscular route because the client has a communicable disease.
• B. The nurse could be charged with assault.
• C. Assault is an intentional threat to bring about harmful or offensive contact. If a nurse threatens to give a client a medication that the client refuses or threatens to give a client an injection without the client's consent, the nurse may be charged with assault. Therefore, the nurse is not justified in administering the medication. Battery is any intentional touching without the client's consent.
• D. The nurse will be justified in administering the medication by the intramuscular route once a prescription has been obtained from the health care provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer explains the concept of assault, which is an intentional threat to bring about harmful or offensive contact. In the scenario provided, the nurse's statement about administering the medication via an intramuscular injection without the client's consent constitutes a threat, potentially falling under the definition of assault. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse's action is not automatically justified solely by the client having a communicable disease. Choice D is also incorrect because even with a prescription, the nurse cannot administer the medication without the client's consent. Choice C provides a detailed explanation distinguishing assault from battery, which helps in understanding the legal implications of the nurse's response in this situation.

2. During an annual physical exam, a client is diagnosed with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH). This client is likely to have a consult with which type of physician?

• A. gynecologist
• B. physiatrist
• C. urologist
• D. proctologist

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client diagnosed with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) would typically have a consult with a urologist. Urologists specialize in urinary tract and prostatic diseases, making them the appropriate choice for managing BPH. A gynecologist focuses on diseases of the female reproductive tract, so they are not relevant in this case. A physiatrist specializes in rehabilitation care, which is not directly related to the treatment of BPH. A proctologist specializes in lower colonic digestive diseases, which are unrelated to BPH.

3. A client who has undergone a total hip replacement is told that she will need to go to an extended care rehabilitation facility for therapy before going home. Which member of the healthcare team should the nurse ask to plan the discharge and transition from the hospital to the rehabilitation facility?

• A. Physical therapist
• B. Occupational therapist
• C. Clergy
• D. Social worker

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the appropriate member of the healthcare team to plan the discharge and transition from the hospital to the rehabilitation facility is the social worker. Social workers are trained to provide counseling services, emotional support, arrange placements in care facilities, and locate financial resources for clients. While clergy provide spiritual support and guidance, physical therapists assist in physical treatments, and occupational therapists help with activities of daily living, the social worker is best suited to address the client's needs related to discharge planning and transition. Therefore, the correct answer is the social worker.

4. Which of these would be an appropriate meal for a client with Celiac disease?

• A. egg noodles with cream sauce and broccoli, oat cookie, almond milk
• B. turkey sandwich with rye bread, carrots
• C. chicken and rice, apple, and tapioca pudding
• D. granola and dried apricots with cow's milk

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For individuals with Celiac disease, it's crucial to avoid gluten-containing foods. Choice C, which includes chicken, rice, apple, and tapioca pudding, is the most suitable option as all these foods are naturally gluten-free. Rice, fruits, vegetables, meat, dairy, and tapioca are all safe gluten-free options. Oats can be gluten-free if specially labeled, but many are processed on shared equipment with wheat. Granola often contains oats that may have been exposed to gluten. Dried and prepackaged fruits may contain gluten additives. Rye is a wheat derivative, and cream sauces usually contain flour as a base, making choices A and B inappropriate for individuals with Celiac disease.

5. A case manager is reviewing notations made in clients' records. Which note indicates an unexpected outcome and the need for immediate follow-up?

• A. A client who exhibits signs of increased intracranial pressure after a craniotomy.
• B. A client who has sustained a stroke and dresses herself.
• C. A client with a spinal cord injury transfers himself from a bed to a wheelchair.
• D. Normal neurological findings are noted in a client with a cerebral aneurysm.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A case manager is responsible for coordinating a client's care and monitoring for unexpected outcomes. The situation that indicates an unexpected outcome and the need for immediate follow-up is when a client exhibits signs of increased intracranial pressure after a craniotomy. This indicates a deteriorating condition that requires urgent intervention. Choices B, C, and D describe expected outcomes or normal findings related to specific conditions, which do not demand immediate follow-up.

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