Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning to administer an oral antibiotic to a client with a communicable disease. The client refuses the medication and tells the nurse that the medication causes abdominal cramping. The nurse responds, 'The medication is needed to prevent the spread of infection, and if you don't take it orally I will have to give it to you in an intramuscular injection.' Which statement accurately describes the nurse's response to the client?

• A. The nurse is justified in administering the medication by way of the intramuscular route because the client has a communicable disease.
• B. The nurse could be charged with assault.
• C. Assault is an intentional threat to bring about harmful or offensive contact. If a nurse threatens to give a client a medication that the client refuses or threatens to give a client an injection without the client's consent, the nurse may be charged with assault. Therefore, the nurse is not justified in administering the medication. Battery is any intentional touching without the client's consent.
• D. The nurse will be justified in administering the medication by the intramuscular route once a prescription has been obtained from the health care provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer explains the concept of assault, which is an intentional threat to bring about harmful or offensive contact. In the scenario provided, the nurse's statement about administering the medication via an intramuscular injection without the client's consent constitutes a threat, potentially falling under the definition of assault. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse's action is not automatically justified solely by the client having a communicable disease. Choice D is also incorrect because even with a prescription, the nurse cannot administer the medication without the client's consent. Choice C provides a detailed explanation distinguishing assault from battery, which helps in understanding the legal implications of the nurse's response in this situation.

2. Which of the following client statements indicates adequate understanding of preparation for electroencephalography?

• A. "I don't need to eat or drink after midnight."?
• B. "I need to wash my hair before the test."?
• C. "I need to remove metal jewelry."?
• D. "I can't take aspirin before the test."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement is, 'I need to wash my hair before the test.' Washing the hair is necessary to remove hair products that could interfere with electrode attachment to the scalp. Restricting food or drink is not required, except for avoiding caffeinated beverages. Removing metal jewelry is unnecessary for an electroencephalography procedure. Aspirin does not need to be avoided before the test; medications like anticonvulsants, tranquilizers, barbiturates, and sedatives are the ones that might need to be held.

3. An LPN is caring for a primarily bedridden client. Which finding should be of least concern?

• A. swollen feet
• B. brown discoloration above the ankles
• C. leg pain
• D. capillary refill time of 3 seconds on the big toe

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the capillary refill time of 3 seconds on the big toe. A capillary refill time longer than three seconds may indicate inadequate blood flow. Swollen feet, brown discoloration above the ankles, and leg pain are all signs of venous insufficiency to the lower extremities. These findings can suggest circulation issues and require further assessment and intervention. Therefore, they should be of more concern compared to the capillary refill time of 3 seconds on the big toe, which is within the normal range of 2-3 seconds.

4. Which of the following syndromes associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord?

• A. Brown-Séquard syndrome
• B. posterior cord syndrome
• C. central cord syndrome
• D. cauda equina syndrome

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Brown-Séquard syndrome is indeed associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord, and it specifically results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord. This syndrome manifests as ipsilateral motor paralysis, ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Posterior cord syndrome mainly involves the loss of proprioception and vibratory sense, while sparing motor function and pain sensation. Central cord syndrome typically presents with more weakness in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities due to central spinal cord damage. Cauda equina syndrome affects the nerve roots at the level of the conus medullaris, leading to symptoms like lower extremity weakness, numbness, and bowel/bladder dysfunction.

5. To remove hard contact lenses from an unresponsive client, what should the nurse do?

• A. Gently irrigate the eye with an irrigating solution from the inner canthus outward
• B. Grasp the lens with a gentle pinching motion
• C. Don sterile gloves before attempting the procedure
• D. Ensure that the lens is centered on the cornea before gently manipulating the lids to release the lens

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When removing hard contact lenses from an unresponsive client, the nurse should ensure that the lens is centered on the cornea before gently manipulating the lids to release the lens. This approach helps prevent scratching the cornea. Gently maneuvering the upper and lower eyelids assists in loosening the lens for easy removal. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because irrigating the eye, grasping the lens, or wearing sterile gloves are not recommended methods for removing hard contact lenses. It is crucial to handle the situation delicately to avoid causing harm or discomfort to the client.

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