a nurse is planning to administer an oral antibiotic to a client with a communicable disease the client refuses the medication and tells the nurse tha
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex PN Questions and Answers

1. A nurse is planning to administer an oral antibiotic to a client with a communicable disease. The client refuses the medication and tells the nurse that the medication causes abdominal cramping. The nurse responds, 'The medication is needed to prevent the spread of infection, and if you don't take it orally I will have to give it to you in an intramuscular injection.' Which statement accurately describes the nurse's response to the client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer explains the concept of assault, which is an intentional threat to bring about harmful or offensive contact. In the scenario provided, the nurse's statement about administering the medication via an intramuscular injection without the client's consent constitutes a threat, potentially falling under the definition of assault. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse's action is not automatically justified solely by the client having a communicable disease. Choice D is also incorrect because even with a prescription, the nurse cannot administer the medication without the client's consent. Choice C provides a detailed explanation distinguishing assault from battery, which helps in understanding the legal implications of the nurse's response in this situation.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer IV Vancomycin to a client. Which of the following nursing actions should be taken first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Before administering any medication, including IV Vancomycin, it is crucial to ensure that the client is not allergic to the medication. This is the most critical action to prevent any potential allergic reactions. While performing a physical assessment is important, it may not be as time-sensitive as checking for allergies. Obtaining lab values related to renal function is also significant with Vancomycin due to its potential nephrotoxicity, but ensuring the client's safety by checking for allergies takes precedence. Reviewing peaks and troughs is important for monitoring drug levels, but it is a secondary step compared to checking for allergies prior to administration.

3. A nurse on the night shift is making client rounds. When the nurse checks a client who is 97 years old and has successfully been treated for heart failure, he notes that the client is not breathing. If the client does not have a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order, the nurse should take which action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is the appropriate action when a client is not breathing and does not have a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. CPR is considered an emergency treatment that can be provided without client consent in life-threatening situations. Calling the health care provider or nursing supervisor for directions, as well as administering oxygen without addressing the lack of breathing, would delay critical life-saving interventions. Therefore, administering CPR is the most urgent and necessary action to perform in this scenario.

4. The healthcare professional seeks to assess the renal function of an elderly client who is about to receive a nephrotoxic medication. Which of the following labs provides the best indicator for renal function?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the context of an elderly client, assessing renal function before administering a nephrotoxic medication is crucial. While urinalysis and blood urea nitrogen provide valuable information on hydration status and overall health clues, they are not specific indicators of renal function. The chemistry of electrolytes may show abnormalities in renal failure, but it does not directly measure the kidneys' ability to eliminate waste. Creatinine clearance, on the other hand, is considered the best indicator for renal function in the elderly. This test accounts for decreases in lean body mass that can affect blood creatinine levels and is widely used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate, reflecting the kidneys' filtration capability. Therefore, creatinine clearance is the most appropriate lab test to assess renal function in this scenario.

5. The nurse in the emergency room is admitting a client who has sustained a gunshot wound and will require immediate surgery. The client is unconscious and by themselves. Which of the following actions is most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In emergency situations where a client is unconscious and requires immediate surgery to save their life, the priority is to proceed with necessary interventions without delay to ensure the best possible outcome. Obtaining informed consent is essential in healthcare, but in situations where a delay in treatment can be life-threatening, healthcare providers are ethically and legally permitted to proceed with treatment without consent. Attempting to stabilize the client until conscious enough to provide consent or trying to locate family members for consent would cause a dangerous delay in critical care. Therefore, the most appropriate action in this scenario is to transport the unconscious client to the operating room for immediate surgery.

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