Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning to administer an oral antibiotic to a client with a communicable disease. The client refuses the medication and tells the nurse that the medication causes abdominal cramping. The nurse responds, 'The medication is needed to prevent the spread of infection, and if you don't take it orally I will have to give it to you in an intramuscular injection.' Which statement accurately describes the nurse's response to the client?

• A. The nurse is justified in administering the medication by way of the intramuscular route because the client has a communicable disease.
• B. The nurse could be charged with assault.
• C. Assault is an intentional threat to bring about harmful or offensive contact. If a nurse threatens to give a client a medication that the client refuses or threatens to give a client an injection without the client's consent, the nurse may be charged with assault. Therefore, the nurse is not justified in administering the medication. Battery is any intentional touching without the client's consent.
• D. The nurse will be justified in administering the medication by the intramuscular route once a prescription has been obtained from the health care provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer explains the concept of assault, which is an intentional threat to bring about harmful or offensive contact. In the scenario provided, the nurse's statement about administering the medication via an intramuscular injection without the client's consent constitutes a threat, potentially falling under the definition of assault. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse's action is not automatically justified solely by the client having a communicable disease. Choice D is also incorrect because even with a prescription, the nurse cannot administer the medication without the client's consent. Choice C provides a detailed explanation distinguishing assault from battery, which helps in understanding the legal implications of the nurse's response in this situation.

2. Once the nurse has made initial rounds and checked all of the assigned clients, which client should be cared for first?

• A. A client who is scheduled for surgery at 1 p.m.
• B. A client in skeletal traction who has just received pain medication
• C. A client scheduled for physical therapy at 11 a.m.
• D. A client who is able to perform activities of daily living independently

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority should be given to the client who is scheduled for surgery at 1 p.m. Preparing a client for surgery involves various tasks such as physical and emotional preparation, following healthcare provider instructions, and potential last-minute changes in the surgical schedule. It is crucial to ensure the client is adequately prepared. Providing care to a client who just received pain medication can wait until the medication takes effect. Clients who are independent in performing daily activities and those scheduled for physical therapy later in the morning are not as high a priority as preparing a client for an upcoming surgery. Therefore, the client scheduled for surgery should be cared for first to ensure all necessary preparations are completed.

3. A child comes to the clinic with a skin rash. The maculopapular lesions are distributed around the mouth and have honey-colored drainage. The caregiver states that the rash is getting worse and seems to spread with the child's scratching. Which of the following advisory comments should be given?

• A. The history and presentation might indicate chickenpox, a highly contagious disease.
• B. The lesions might indicate a noncontagious infection that does not require isolation.
• C. The history and presentation might indicate an infectious illness called impetigo.
• D. The lesions are not contagious unless others have open wounds or lesions themselves.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The scenario describes classic impetigo, which typically presents with maculopapular lesions around the mouth with honey-colored drainage, worsening with scratching. It is important to advise the caregiver that the history and presentation are indicative of impetigo, an infectious skin condition caused by bacteria. Treatment usually involves antibiotic therapy. Choice A is incorrect because chickenpox typically presents with a vesicular rash following a history of high fever. Choice B is incorrect as impetigo is contagious and requires precautions to prevent the spread of infection. Choice D is incorrect as impetigo is contagious irrespective of open wounds or lesions in others.

4. Which of the following ethnic groups is at highest risk in the United States for pesticide-related injuries?

• A. Native American
• B. Asian-Pacific
• C. Norwegian
• D. Hispanic

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hispanic.' Hispanic individuals in the United States are at a higher risk for pesticide-related injuries due to their representation among migrant workers in agricultural settings. This exposure to pesticides in their work environments increases their risk compared to other ethnic groups. Choice A, 'Native American,' although indigenous populations may face environmental health disparities, the higher risk in this context is among Hispanic individuals. Choice B, 'Asian-Pacific,' and Choice C, 'Norwegian,' do not have the same level of exposure to pesticides as Hispanic migrant workers, making them less susceptible to pesticide-related injuries.

5. When administering NSAID adjunctive therapy to an elderly client with cancer, the nurse must monitor:

• A. BUN and creatinine.
• B. creatinine and calcium.
• C. Hgb and Hct.
• D. BUN and CFT.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When an elderly client with cancer is receiving NSAID therapy, monitoring BUN (blood urea nitrogen) and creatinine levels is crucial. NSAIDs can cause renal toxicity, especially in the elderly. BUN and creatinine levels help assess renal function and detect early signs of renal impairment. Monitoring creatinine alone (Choice B) is not sufficient as BUN provides complementary information about renal function. Monitoring hemoglobin (Hgb) and hematocrit (Hct) (Choice C) is important for assessing anemia but not specific to NSAID therapy in the elderly. CFT (Choice D) is not a standard abbreviation in this context, and monitoring coagulation function is not directly related to NSAID therapy in this scenario.

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