Nursing Elites

1. A patient is suspected to have sustained a spinal cord injury. What best describes the overarching principles used to guide the care for this type of condition?

• A. Immobilize the cervical area to prevent further injury
• B. Monitor the patient's level of consciousness to prevent neurologic deterioration
• C. Help the patient with activities of daily living and provide emotional and physical support to help them adjust to their injury
• D. Facilitate tissue perfusion to the spinal cord while maintaining airway and breathing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to facilitate tissue perfusion to the spinal cord while maintaining airway and breathing. In the acute phase of a spinal cord injury, ensuring proper tissue perfusion to the spinal cord is crucial to prevent further damage. Maintaining airway, breathing, and circulation is essential in guiding the overall care for a patient with a spinal cord injury. Choices A, B, and C, while important in certain aspects of care, are not the overarching principles that guide the immediate management of a suspected spinal cord injury.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The client is placed on a cardiac monitor and receives 40 mEq potassium chloride in 1000 ml of 5% dextrose in water IV. Which of the following EKG patterns indicates to the nurse that the infusions should be discontinued?

• A. Narrowed QRS complex
• B. Shortened "PR"? interval
• C. Tall peaked "T"? waves
• D. Prominent "U"? waves

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A tall peaked T wave is a characteristic EKG pattern associated with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia refers to high levels of potassium in the blood, which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Tall peaked T waves are a red flag for potential cardiac issues and can indicate the need to discontinue potassium infusions. The other choices, such as narrowed QRS complex, shortened "PR"? interval, and prominent "U"? waves, are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Therefore, recognizing tall peaked T waves is crucial for the nurse to take prompt action in managing the client's condition.

3. The nurse cares for a patient who has just had a thoracentesis. Which assessment information obtained by the nurse is a priority to communicate to the health care provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation is 88%.
• B. Blood pressure is 145/90 mm Hg.
• C. Respiratory rate is 22 breaths/minute when lying flat.
• D. Pain level is 5 (on a 0 to 10 scale) with a deep breath.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Oxygen saturation is 88%.' Following a thoracentesis, oxygen saturation should improve. A saturation of 88% suggests a potential complication like pneumothorax. While the other assessment findings are important, the priority is to address the low oxygen saturation to prevent further complications. High blood pressure and respiratory rate may also need attention, but the immediate concern is the oxygen saturation level. Pain level, though significant for the patient's comfort, takes lower priority compared to the potential life-threatening issue of hypoxia.

4. The healthcare provider calculates the IV flow rate for a patient receiving lactated Ringer's solution. The patient needs to receive 2000mL of Lactated Ringer's over 36 hours. The IV infusion set has a drop factor of 15 drops per milliliter. How many drops per minute should the healthcare provider set the IV to deliver?

• A. 8
• B. 10
• C. 14
• D. 18

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute, we use the formula Drops Per Minute = (Milliliters x Drop Factor) / Time in Minutes. In this case, Drops Per Minute = (2000mL x 15 drops/mL) / (36 hours x 60 minutes/hour) = 30000 / 2160 = 13.89 (approximately 14). Therefore, the correct answer is 14 drops per minute. Choice A (8), Choice B (10), and Choice D (18) are incorrect as they do not correctly calculate the drops per minute based on the given information.

5. When assessing a patient suspected to have Hepatitis, a nurse notes the patient's eyes are yellow-tinged. Which of the following diagnostic results would further assist in confirming this diagnosis?

• A. Decreased serum Bilirubin
• B. Elevated serum ALT levels
• C. Low RBC and Hemoglobin with increased WBCs
• D. Increased Blood Urea Nitrogen level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Elevated serum ALT levels would further confirm the diagnosis of Hepatitis. ALT is a liver enzyme, and hepatitis is a liver disease. Elevated liver enzymes, such as ALT, often indicate liver damage. Choice A, 'Decreased serum Bilirubin,' is incorrect as elevated bilirubin levels are typically seen in hepatitis due to impaired bilirubin metabolism. Choices C and D are unrelated to confirming a diagnosis of hepatitis as they describe findings not specific to liver function or hepatitis. Low RBC and Hemoglobin with increased WBCs (Choice C) suggest a different condition like anemia or infection, not specific to liver disease. Increased Blood Urea Nitrogen level (Choice D) is more indicative of kidney function rather than liver function, thus not helpful in confirming hepatitis.

Similar Questions