NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A patient is suspected to have sustained a spinal cord injury. What best describes the overarching principles used to guide the care for this type of condition?
- A. Immobilize the cervical area to prevent further injury
- B. Monitor the patient's level of consciousness to prevent neurologic deterioration
- C. Help the patient with activities of daily living and provide emotional and physical support to help them adjust to their injury
- D. Facilitate tissue perfusion to the spinal cord while maintaining airway and breathing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to facilitate tissue perfusion to the spinal cord while maintaining airway and breathing. In the acute phase of a spinal cord injury, ensuring proper tissue perfusion to the spinal cord is crucial to prevent further damage. Maintaining airway, breathing, and circulation is essential in guiding the overall care for a patient with a spinal cord injury. Choices A, B, and C, while important in certain aspects of care, are not the overarching principles that guide the immediate management of a suspected spinal cord injury.
2. During your evaluation of a 14-year-old girl with a BMI of 18, she reports inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?
- A. Multiple sclerosis
- B. Anorexia nervosa
- C. Bulimia nervosa
- D. Systemic sclerosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the question is highly suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is characterized by self-imposed starvation due to a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight, even when the individual is underweight. The patient's symptoms of inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation align with the behavior seen in anorexia nervosa, including restrictive eating patterns and purging behaviors. Multiple sclerosis (Choice A) is a neurological disorder, not associated with the described symptoms. Bulimia nervosa (Choice C) typically involves binge eating followed by purging behaviors, which is different from the described primary restriction seen in anorexia nervosa. Systemic sclerosis (Choice D) is a connective tissue disorder and is not related to the symptoms of self-induced vomiting and severe constipation reported in this case.
3. The nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient who was hospitalized for pneumonia. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates a good understanding of the instructions?
- A. I will call the doctor if I still feel tired after a week.
- B. I will continue to do the deep breathing and coughing exercises at home.
- C. I will continue to do the deep breathing and coughing exercises at home.
- D. I'll cancel my chest x-ray appointment if Im feeling better in a couple weeks
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patients should continue to cough and deep breathe after discharge. Fatigue is expected for several weeks. The Pneumovax and influenza vaccines can be given at the same time in different arms. Explain that a follow-up chest x-ray needs to be done in 6 to 8 weeks to evaluate resolution of pneumonia.
4. While caring for a patient with respiratory disease, the nurse observes that the patient's SpO2 drops from 93% to 88% while the patient is ambulating in the hallway. What is the priority action of the nurse?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider
- B. Document the response to exercise
- C. Administer the PRN supplemental O2
- D. Encourage the patient to pace activity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The drop in SpO2 to 88% indicates that the patient is hypoxemic and needs supplemental oxygen when exercising. Administering PRN supplemental oxygen is the priority action to correct the hypoxemia and ensure adequate oxygenation during activity. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after stabilizing the patient's oxygen levels. Documenting the response to exercise is important but secondary to addressing the immediate hypoxemia. Encouraging the patient to pace activity is not sufficient to address the acute drop in SpO2 and provide the necessary oxygen support.
5. A 34-year-old female has recently been diagnosed with an autoimmune disease. She has also recently discovered that she is pregnant. Which of the following is the only immunoglobulin that will provide protection to the fetus in the womb?
- A. IgA
- B. IgD
- C. IgE
- D. IgG
Correct answer: D
Rationale: IgG is the only immunoglobulin that can cross the placental barrier, providing passive immunity to the fetus. About 70-80% of the immunoglobulins in the blood are IgG. Specific IgG antibodies are generated after an initial exposure to an antigen, offering long-term protection against microorganisms. IgG antibodies are critical for protecting the fetus as they can be rapidly reproduced upon re-exposure to the same antigen. IgA is primarily found in mucosal areas, IgD is involved in antigen recognition, and IgE is associated with allergic reactions, but they do not provide the same level of protection to the fetus as IgG.
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