Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following types of dressing changes works as a form of wound debridement?

• A. Dry dressing
• B. Transparent dressing
• C. Composite dressing
• D. Wet to dry dressing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Wet to dry dressing.' Wet to dry dressing is a method of wound debridement that involves applying sterile soaked gauze to the wound, allowing it to dry and stick to the wound. When the dressing is removed, it pulls away drainage and debris, aiding in wound debridement. Choice A, 'Dry dressing,' does not actively assist in debridement as it does not collect or remove debris from the wound. Choice B, 'Transparent dressing,' is primarily used for maintaining a moist environment and wound observation, not for debridement. Choice C, 'Composite dressing,' combines multiple layers for different wound care purposes but is not specifically designed for debridement like wet to dry dressing.

2. A patient with a pleural effusion is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Which action should the nurse take to prepare the patient for the procedure?

• A. Start a peripheral IV line to administer any necessary sedative drugs.
• B. Position the patient sitting upright on the edge of the bed and leaning forward.
• C. Obtain a collection device to hold a reasonable amount of pleural fluid for extraction.
• D. Remove the water pitcher and remind the patient not to eat or drink anything for 6 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in preparing a patient for a thoracentesis is to position the patient sitting upright on the edge of the bed and leaning forward. This position helps fluid accumulate at the lung bases, making it easier to locate and remove. Sedation is not usually required for a thoracentesis, so starting an IV line for sedative drugs is unnecessary. Additionally, there are no restrictions on oral intake before the procedure since the patient is not sedated or unconscious. A large collection device to hold 2 to 3 liters of pleural fluid at one time is excessive as usually only 1000 to 1200 mL of pleural fluid is removed to avoid complications like hypotension, hypoxemia, or pulmonary edema. Therefore, the correct choice is to position the patient upright for the procedure.

3. The nurse is planning discharge instructions for the mother of a child following orchiopexy, which was performed on an outpatient basis. Which is a priority in the plan of care?

• A. Wound care
• B. Pain control measures
• C. Measurement of intake
• D. Cold and heat applications

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Following orchiopexy, the priority in the plan of care for the child's mother is wound care. The most common complications associated with orchiopexy are bleeding and infection. Discharge instructions should focus on demonstrating wound cleansing and dressing, and teaching parents to recognize signs of infection like redness, warmth, swelling, or discharge. It is crucial to prevent movement of the testicles and avoid contamination of the suture line. While analgesics may be prescribed, pain control measures are not the priority among the options presented. Measurement of intake is not essential as the child is likely to resume normal eating habits. Cold and heat applications are not typical prescribed treatments for post-orchiopexy care.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing vital signs in pediatric patients. Which of the following vital signs is abnormal?

• A. 11-year-old male: 90 BPM, 22 RPM, 100/70 mmHg
• B. 13-year-old female: 105 BPM, 22 RPM, 105/50 mmHg
• C. 5-year-old male: 102 BPM, 24 RPM, 90/65 mmHg
• D. 6-year-old female: 100 BPM, 26 RPM, 90/70 mmHg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The normal range of vital signs for pediatric patients varies with age. For 11 to 14-year-olds, the normal vital sign ranges are: Heart rate: 60-105 BPM; Respiratory rate: 12-20 RPM; Blood pressure: Systolic 85-120 mmHg, Diastolic 55-80 mmHg. The 13-year-old female in choice B has a diastolic blood pressure below the normal range, indicating hypotension. Additionally, her heart rate is at the upper limit of normal, and her respiratory rate is within normal limits. Choices A, C, and D all fall within the normal ranges for vital signs in pediatric patients.

5. The nurse reviews the record of a newborn infant and notes that a diagnosis of esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula is suspected. The nurse expects to note which most likely sign of this condition documented in the record?

• A. Incessant crying
• B. Coughing at nighttime
• C. Choking with feedings
• D. Severe projectile vomiting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula, the esophagus ends before it reaches the stomach, forming a blind pouch, and there is an abnormal connection (fistula) with the trachea. Any child who exhibits the '3 Cs'"?coughing and choking with feedings and unexplained cyanosis"?should be suspected to have tracheoesophageal fistula. Option A, 'Incessant crying,' is not a typical sign of esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula. Option B, 'Coughing at nighttime,' is not a specific sign associated with this condition. Option D, 'Severe projectile vomiting,' is not a common sign of esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula.

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