Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old on admission to the burn unit. One assessment parameter that will indicate that the child has adequate fluid replacement is:

• A. Urinary output of 30 ml per hour
• B. No complaints of thirst
• C. Increased hematocrit
• D. Good skin turgor around burn

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a child of this age, this is adequate output, yet does not suggest overload. Disruption of sodium-ATPase activity presumably causes an intracellular sodium shift which contributes to hypovolemia and cellular edema. Heat injury also initiates the release of inflammatory and vasoactive mediators. These mediators are responsible for local vasoconstriction, systemic vasodilation, and increased transcapillary permeability. Increase in transcapillary permeability results in a rapid transfer of water, inorganic solutes, and plasma proteins between the intravascular and interstitial spaces.

2. A patient in the emergency room has a fractured left elbow and presents with an unequal radial pulse, swelling, and numbness in the left hand after waiting for 5 hours. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Place the patient in a supine position
• B. Ask the patient to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
• C. Wrap the fractured area with a snug dressing
• D. Start an IV in the other arm.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to start an IV in the other arm. In this scenario, the patient is showing signs of Acute Compartment Syndrome, a serious condition that occurs due to increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to decreased blood flow and potential tissue damage. Starting an IV is crucial as the patient may require emergency surgery, such as a fasciotomy, to relieve the pressure and prevent further complications. Placing the patient in a supine position, asking about pain levels, or wrapping the fractured area, though important, are not the priority interventions in this critical situation where immediate medical intervention is necessary to prevent irreversible damage or loss of limb.

3. A 45-year-old woman is prescribed ropinirole (Requip) for Parkinson's Disease. The patient is living at home with her daughter. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of ropinirole?

• A. Slurred speech
• B. Sudden dizziness
• C. Mask-like facial expression
• D. Stooped posture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Sudden dizziness.' Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension are serious adverse effects of ropinirole that can lead to an increased risk of falls. Ropinirole belongs to the drug class of dopamine agonists, which mimic dopamine in the brain (Parkinson's Disease is characterized by a lack of dopamine). 'Slurred speech' is not a common side effect of ropinirole. 'Mask-like facial expression' and 'Stooped posture' are more associated with the progression of Parkinson's Disease itself rather than a side effect of ropinirole.

4. Which factors will the nurse consider when calculating the CURB-65 score for a patient with pneumonia? (Select one that does not apply)

• A. Age
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Oxygen saturation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Oxygen saturation.' When calculating the CURB-65 score for a patient with pneumonia, the factors considered include mental status (confusion), BUN (elevated), blood pressure (decreased), respiratory rate (increased), and age (65 and older). Oxygen saturation is not used in the CURB-65 scoring system. While blood pressure, respiratory rate, and age are factors that are used in the calculation of the CURB-65 score, oxygen saturation is not part of the scoring criteria. Therefore, oxygen saturation is the factor that does not apply when calculating the CURB-65 score.

5. Following mitral valve replacement surgery, a client develops PVCs. The healthcare provider orders a bolus of Lidocaine followed by a continuous Lidocaine infusion at a rate of 2 mg/minute. The IV solution contains 2 grams of Lidocaine in 500 mL of D5W. The infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops/mL. What rate would deliver 4 mg of Lidocaine per minute?

• A. 60 microdrops/minute
• B. 20 microdrops/minute
• C. 30 microdrops/minute
• D. 40 microdrops/minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the rate needed to deliver 4 mg/minute of Lidocaine, first, convert 2 grams to milligrams: 2 grams = 2000 mg. Then, set up a ratio between the total amount of Lidocaine (2000 mg) and the total volume of IV solution (500 mL): 2000 mg / 500 mL = 4 mg / x mL. Solving for x, x = 1 mL. Since the infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops per mL, multiplying by 60 microdrops/mL gives the correct rate of 60 microdrops/minute. This rate ensures the desired 4 mg of Lidocaine is delivered per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided information.

Similar Questions