Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old on admission to the burn unit. One assessment parameter that will indicate that the child has adequate fluid replacement is:

• A. Urinary output of 30 ml per hour
• B. No complaints of thirst
• C. Increased hematocrit
• D. Good skin turgor around burn

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a child of this age, this is adequate output, yet does not suggest overload. Disruption of sodium-ATPase activity presumably causes an intracellular sodium shift which contributes to hypovolemia and cellular edema. Heat injury also initiates the release of inflammatory and vasoactive mediators. These mediators are responsible for local vasoconstriction, systemic vasodilation, and increased transcapillary permeability. Increase in transcapillary permeability results in a rapid transfer of water, inorganic solutes, and plasma proteins between the intravascular and interstitial spaces.

2. The parents of a newborn with hypospadias are reviewing the treatment plan with the nurse. Which statement by the parents indicates their understanding of the plan?

• A. Caution should be used when straddling my infant on a hip.
• B. Vital signs should be taken daily to check for bladder infection.
• C. Catheterization will be necessary when my infant does not void.
• D. Circumcision has been delayed to save tissue for surgical repair.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypospadias is a congenital defect involving abnormal placement of the urethral orifice of the penis. In hypospadias, the urethral orifice is located below the glans penis along the ventral surface. It's important not to circumcise the infant, as the dorsal foreskin tissue will be required for surgical repair of the hypospadias. Option A is unrelated to the treatment plan for hypospadias. Option B is not directly related to the surgical repair of hypospadias. Option C is not a routine part of the treatment plan for hypospadias, as catheterization is usually managed by healthcare professionals.

3. The patient is being taught about pulmonary function testing (PFT). Which statement made by the patient indicates effective teaching?

• A. I will use my inhaler right before the test.
• B. I won't eat or drink anything 8 hours before the test.
• C. I should inhale deeply and blow out as hard as I can during the test.
• D. My blood pressure and pulse will be checked every 15 minutes after the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'I should inhale deeply and blow out as hard as I can during the test.' This statement indicates effective teaching because for PFT, the patient needs to inhale deeply and exhale forcefully. This maneuver helps in assessing lung function accurately. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Using an inhaler right before the test may alter the test results, which is not recommended. Fasting for 8 hours is not necessary for a PFT, and checking blood pressure and pulse every 15 minutes after the test is not part of the PFT procedure.

4. A client presents with symptoms of a sore throat, swollen lymph nodes in the neck, fever, chills, and extreme fatigue. Based on these symptoms, which of the following illnesses could the nurse consider for this client?

• A. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
• B. Hepatitis B
• C. Infectious mononucleosis
• D. Norovirus infection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infectious mononucleosis is a viral disease caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. The symptoms of sore throat, fever, chills, swollen lymph nodes, and extreme fatigue are characteristic of infectious mononucleosis. The diagnosis is confirmed through the client's history and blood tests for the Epstein-Barr virus. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) presents with localized skin infections, not the systemic symptoms described. Hepatitis B typically presents with jaundice, abdominal pain, and liver inflammation, not the symptoms described. Norovirus infection commonly causes gastrointestinal symptoms like vomiting and diarrhea, not the symptoms presented by the client.

5. A patient's chart indicates a history of meningitis. Which of the following would you NOT expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Vomiting
• C. Fever
• D. Poor tolerance of light

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Increased appetite.' In cases of acute meningitis, loss of appetite would be expected rather than an increase. Meningitis is often caused by an infectious agent that colonizes or infects various sites in the body, leading to systemic symptoms. Common symptoms of acute meningitis include fever, vomiting, and poor tolerance of light due to meningeal irritation. The inflammatory response in the meninges can result in symptoms like photophobia. Increased appetite is not typically associated with acute meningitis. Therefore, choice A is the least likely symptom to be observed in a patient with acute meningitis. Choices B, C, and D are symptoms commonly seen in acute meningitis due to the inflammatory process affecting the central nervous system and meninges.

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