Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old on admission to the burn unit. One assessment parameter that will indicate that the child has adequate fluid replacement is:

• A. Urinary output of 30 ml per hour
• B. No complaints of thirst
• C. Increased hematocrit
• D. Good skin turgor around burn

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a child of this age, this is adequate output, yet does not suggest overload. Disruption of sodium-ATPase activity presumably causes an intracellular sodium shift which contributes to hypovolemia and cellular edema. Heat injury also initiates the release of inflammatory and vasoactive mediators. These mediators are responsible for local vasoconstriction, systemic vasodilation, and increased transcapillary permeability. Increase in transcapillary permeability results in a rapid transfer of water, inorganic solutes, and plasma proteins between the intravascular and interstitial spaces.

2. A 53-year-old patient is being treated for bleeding esophageal varices with balloon tamponade. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?

• A. Instruct the patient to cough every hour
• B. Monitor the patient for shortness of breath
• C. Verify the position of the balloon every 4 hours
• D. Deflate the gastric balloon if the patient reports nausea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct nursing action for a patient with balloon tamponade for bleeding esophageal varices is to monitor the patient for shortness of breath. The most common complication of balloon tamponade is aspiration pneumonia. Additionally, if the gastric balloon ruptures, the esophageal balloon may slip upward and occlude the airway. Instructing the patient to cough every hour is incorrect as coughing increases the pressure on the varices and raises the risk of bleeding. Verifying the position of the balloon every 4 hours is unnecessary as it is typically done after insertion. Deflating the gastric balloon if the patient reports nausea is incorrect because deflating it may cause the esophageal balloon to occlude the airway, leading to complications. Therefore, monitoring for signs of respiratory distress is crucial in this situation.

3. The nurse is caring for a 27-year-old female client with a venous stasis ulcer. Which nursing intervention would be most effective in promoting healing?

• A. Apply dressing using sterile technique
• B. Improve the client's nutrition status
• C. Initiate limb compression therapy
• D. Begin proteolytic debridement

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Venous stasis occurs when venous blood collects and stagnates in the lower leg due to incompetent venous valves. This leads to inadequate oxygen and nutrient supply to the cells in the lower extremities, resulting in cell death or necrosis. Venous stasis ulcers, characterized by shallow brown wounds with irregular margins, typically develop on the lower leg or ankle. The primary goal in managing clients with venous stasis ulcers is to promote healing. Proper nutrition plays a crucial role in wound healing. Nutritional deficiencies are common causes of venous ulcers, and a diet rich in protein, iron, zinc, and vitamins C and A is recommended to enhance wound healing. Applying dressings with sterile technique, initiating limb compression therapy, and beginning proteolytic debridement are important interventions in wound care but may not directly address the underlying issue of poor nutrition that is essential for healing venous stasis ulcers.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient in the ICU who has had a spinal cord injury. She observes that his last blood pressure was 100/55, and his pulse is 48. These have both trended downwards from the baseline. What should the nurse expect to be the next course of action ordered by the physician?

• A. Assess the patient for decreased level of consciousness
• B. Administer Normal Saline
• C. Insert an NG Tube
• D. Connect and read an EKG

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient is entering neurogenic shock due to the spinal cord injury, leading to hypotension and bradycardia. Administering Normal Saline is essential to replace fluid volume, which can help in treating the hypotension and bradycardia symptomatically. This intervention aims to stabilize the patient's cardiovascular status. Assessing for decreased level of consciousness (Choice A) may be important but addressing the hemodynamic instability takes precedence. Inserting an NG Tube (Choice C) and connecting and reading an EKG (Choice D) are not the immediate actions required for the presenting symptoms of hypotension and bradycardia.

5. A patient admitted to the hospital with myocardial infarction develops severe pulmonary edema. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit?

• A. Slow, deep respirations
• B. Stridor
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Air hunger

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with pulmonary edema following a myocardial infarction, the nurse should expect symptoms such as air hunger, anxiety, and agitation. Air hunger refers to the feeling of needing to breathe more deeply or more often. Other symptoms of pulmonary edema can include coughing up blood or bloody froth, orthopnea (difficulty breathing when lying down), and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (sudden awakening with shortness of breath). Slow, deep respirations (Choice A) are not typical in pulmonary edema; these patients often exhibit rapid, shallow breathing due to the difficulty in oxygen exchange. Stridor (Choice B) is a high-pitched breathing sound often associated with upper airway obstruction, not typically seen in pulmonary edema. Bradycardia (Choice C), a slow heart rate, is not a characteristic symptom of pulmonary edema, which is more likely to be associated with tachycardia due to the body's compensatory response to hypoxia and increased workload on the heart.

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