Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old on admission to the burn unit. One assessment parameter that will indicate that the child has adequate fluid replacement is:

• A. Urinary output of 30 ml per hour
• B. No complaints of thirst
• C. Increased hematocrit
• D. Good skin turgor around burn

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a child of this age, this is adequate output, yet does not suggest overload. Disruption of sodium-ATPase activity presumably causes an intracellular sodium shift which contributes to hypovolemia and cellular edema. Heat injury also initiates the release of inflammatory and vasoactive mediators. These mediators are responsible for local vasoconstriction, systemic vasodilation, and increased transcapillary permeability. Increase in transcapillary permeability results in a rapid transfer of water, inorganic solutes, and plasma proteins between the intravascular and interstitial spaces.

2. The healthcare provider is reviewing the lab results of a patient who has presented in the Emergency Room. The lab results show that the BNP (B-type Natriuretic Peptide) value is 615 pg/ml. What would the healthcare provider take as the priority action?

• A. Call for a cardiac evaluation and implement appropriate measures
• B. Check the patient's oxygen saturation
• C. Inform the physician about the elevated BNP level
• D. Encourage the patient to limit physical activity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated BNP level is indicative of decreased cardiac output, suggesting potential heart failure. In this scenario, the priority action is to check the patient's oxygen saturation. Oxygen saturation assessment is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation and respiratory function, which is essential in managing cardiac conditions. Calling for a cardiac evaluation and implementing appropriate measures may be necessary but is not the immediate priority without assessing oxygen saturation. Informing the physician about the elevated BNP level can be important for further management but is not the immediate action needed in this situation. Encouraging the patient to limit physical activity might be a consideration later but is not the priority action when dealing with a potential cardiac emergency.

3. Which of these individuals would the nurse suspect as having the greatest risk of contracting Hepatitis B?

• A. A sexually active 45-year-old man who has Type 1 Diabetes
• B. A 75-year-old woman who lives in a crowded nursing home
• C. A child who lives in a country with poor sanitation and hygiene standards
• D. A sexually active 23-year-old man who works in a hospital

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is a sexually active 23-year-old man who works in a hospital. This individual is at the highest risk of contracting Hepatitis B due to exposure in a healthcare setting where potential bloodborne pathogens are present. Being sexually active also increases the risk of transmission through sexual contact. Choice A, a 45-year-old man with Type 1 Diabetes, is not directly associated with an increased risk of Hepatitis B. Choice B, a 75-year-old woman living in a crowded nursing home, is at risk for other infections due to the living environment but not specifically for Hepatitis B. Choice C, a child in a country with poor sanitation, is more at risk for water or foodborne illnesses rather than Hepatitis B transmission.

4. A nurse caring for several patients in the cardiac unit is told that one is scheduled for implantation of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator. Which of the following patients is most likely to have this procedure?

• A. A patient admitted for myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage.
• B. A postoperative coronary bypass patient, recovering on schedule.
• C. A patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes.
• D. A patient with a history of atrial tachycardia and fatigue.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes. An automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator is used to deliver an electric shock to the heart to terminate episodes of ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. These patients are at high risk of life-threatening arrhythmias, which may result in syncope. Patients with atrial tachycardia and fatigue (Choice D) would not typically require an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator as their primary issue is related to atrial arrhythmias. Patients who have had a myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage (Choice A) or postoperative coronary bypass patients recovering on schedule (Choice B) are not necessarily at high risk for ventricular arrhythmias and would not be the primary candidates for an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator.

5. When caring for a patient with Parkinson's Disease, which of the following practices would not be included in the care plan?

• A. Decrease the calorie content of daily meals to avoid weight gain
• B. Allow the patient extra time to respond to questions and perform ADLs
• C. Use thickened liquids and a soft diet
• D. Encourage the patient to hold the spoon when eating

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease the calorie content of daily meals to avoid weight gain. Patients with Parkinson's Disease often experience dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) and muscle rigidity, which can lead to weight loss. Therefore, increasing calorie intake is essential to meet their nutritional needs. Choice A is incorrect because reducing calories can worsen malnutrition in these patients. Choices B, C, and D are appropriate interventions for patients with Parkinson's Disease. Allowing extra time for tasks, using thickened liquids and a soft diet for swallowing difficulties, and encouraging self-feeding promote independence and safety in eating.

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