Nursing Elites

1. When developing a plan of care for a 6-year-old child diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis, which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Encourage limited activity and provide safety measures.
• B. Catheterize the child to monitor intake and output strictly.
• C. Encourage the child to talk about feelings related to illness.
• D. Encourage classmates to visit and keep the child informed of school events.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority intervention for a 6-year-old child diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis should be to encourage limited activity and provide safety measures. In glomerulonephritis, children tend to restrict their activities voluntarily due to fatigue during the active phase of the disease. Catheterization for intake and output monitoring may predispose the child to infection and is not the primary intervention. Encouraging the child to talk about feelings related to the illness may not be developmentally appropriate for a 6-year-old; instead, children can express feelings through play. It is important to limit visitors to allow the child to rest and recover rather than encouraging classmates to visit and keep the child informed of school events.

2. The nurse is planning discharge instructions for the mother of a child following orchiopexy, which was performed on an outpatient basis. Which is a priority in the plan of care?

• A. Wound care
• B. Pain control measures
• C. Measurement of intake
• D. Cold and heat applications

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Following orchiopexy, the priority in the plan of care for the child's mother is wound care. The most common complications associated with orchiopexy are bleeding and infection. Discharge instructions should focus on demonstrating wound cleansing and dressing, and teaching parents to recognize signs of infection like redness, warmth, swelling, or discharge. It is crucial to prevent movement of the testicles and avoid contamination of the suture line. While analgesics may be prescribed, pain control measures are not the priority among the options presented. Measurement of intake is not essential as the child is likely to resume normal eating habits. Cold and heat applications are not typical prescribed treatments for post-orchiopexy care.

3. A 23-year-old woman is admitted to the infusion clinic after a Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation. The physician orders methylprednisolone infusions (Solu-Medrol). The nurse would expect which of the following outcomes after administration of this medication?

• A. A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements
• B. A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques
• C. A decrease in the length of the exacerbation
• D. A stabilization of mood and sleep

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methylprednisolone infusion is the first-line treatment during an acute exacerbation of Multiple Sclerosis. It is used to decrease the length and severity of a relapse by reducing inflammation in the central nervous system. Choice A, 'A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements,' is incorrect because methylprednisolone primarily targets inflammation and does not directly address muscle spasticity. Choice B, 'A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques,' is incorrect as methylprednisolone is not used to slow the progression of the disease but rather to manage acute exacerbations. Choice D, 'A stabilization of mood and sleep,' is not an expected outcome of methylprednisolone administration for Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation as it primarily targets the inflammatory process associated with the relapse.

4. Mr. C is brought to the hospital with severe burns over 45% of his body. His heart rate is 124 bpm and thready, BP 84/46, respirations 24/minute and shallow. He is apprehensive and restless. Which of the following types of shock is Mr. C at highest risk for?

• A. Septic shock
• B. Hypovolemic shock
• C. Neurogenic shock
• D. Cardiogenic shock

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Mr. C, who has severe burns over 45% of his body, is at highest risk for hypovolemic shock. Burns lead to a loss of plasma volume, reducing the circulating fluid volume and impairing perfusion to vital organs and extremities. In this scenario, the signs of shock, such as increased heart rate, low blood pressure, shallow respirations, and restlessness, indicate a state of hypovolemic shock due to significant fluid loss. Septic shock (choice A) is primarily caused by severe infections, neurogenic shock (choice C) results from spinal cord injuries, and cardiogenic shock (choice D) stems from heart failure. However, in this case, the presentation aligns most closely with hypovolemic shock due to the extensive burn injury and its effects on fluid volume and perfusion.

5. What nursing action demonstrates the nurse understands the priority nursing diagnosis when caring for patients being treated with splints, casts, or traction?

• A. The nurse assesses extremity pulse, temperature, color, pain, and feeling every hour.
• B. The nurse orders meals with adequate protein and calcium for the patient.
• C. The nurse teaches the patient never to insert objects under a cast to scratch an itch.
• D. The nurse administers oral painkillers as ordered.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess extremity pulse, temperature, color, pain, and feeling every hour. This action aligns with the priority nursing diagnosis of Risk for Peripheral Neurovascular Dysfunction related to fractures. Monitoring these factors is crucial to detect any signs of compromised circulation or nerve function promptly. Option B is incorrect as it does not directly address the priority nursing diagnosis. Option C is important but does not directly relate to the neurovascular aspect. Option D, administering painkillers, is necessary but does not specifically address the priority nursing diagnosis of neurovascular dysfunction.

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