Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a 2-year-old child after corrective surgery for Tetralogy of Fallot. The mother reports that the child has suddenly begun seizing. The nurse recognizes this problem is probably due to

• A. A cerebral vascular accident
• B. Postoperative meningitis
• C. Medication reaction
• D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a cerebral vascular accident. Polycythemia occurs as a physiological reaction to chronic hypoxemia, which commonly occurs in clients with Tetralogy of Fallot. Polycythemia and the resultant increased viscosity of the blood increase the risk of thromboembolic events, including cerebrovascular accidents. Signs and symptoms of a cerebral vascular accident include sudden paralysis, altered speech, extreme irritability or fatigue, and seizures. Postoperative meningitis (choice B) is less likely in this scenario as the sudden onset of seizing is more indicative of a vascular event rather than an infection. Medication reaction (choice C) is not the most probable cause given the history provided. Metabolic alkalosis (choice D) is not associated with sudden seizing in this context.

2. When analyzing the results of the urinalysis collected preoperatively from a child with epispadias scheduled for surgical repair, which finding should the nurse most likely expect to note?

• A. Hematuria
• B. Proteinuria
• C. Bacteriuria
• D. Glucosuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Epispadias is a congenital defect characterized by the abnormal placement of the urethral orifice of the penis, often on the dorsum. This anatomical anomaly predisposes individuals to bacterial entry into the urinary tract, leading to bacteriuria. Hematuria, proteinuria, and glucosuria are not typically associated with epispadias. Hematuria refers to the presence of blood in the urine, proteinuria indicates protein in the urine, and glucosuria is the presence of glucose in the urine, none of which are commonly seen in epispadias.

3. A female patient with atrial fibrillation has the following lab results: Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, a platelet count of 150,000, an INR of 2.5, and potassium of 2.7 mEq/L. Which result is critical and should be reported to the physician immediately?

• A. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl
• B. Platelet count of 150,000
• C. INR of 2.5
• D. Potassium of 2.7 mEq/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The critical lab result that should be reported to the physician immediately in this case is the potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. A potassium imbalance, especially in a patient with a history of dysrhythmia like atrial fibrillation, can be life-threatening and lead to cardiac distress. Low potassium levels (hypokalemia) can predispose the patient to dangerous arrhythmias, including worsening atrial fibrillation. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, platelet count of 150,000, and an INR of 2.5 are within acceptable ranges and not as immediately concerning as a low potassium level in this clinical context.

4. Which information about a 60-year-old patient with MS indicates that the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before giving the prescribed dose of dalfampridine (Ampyra)?

• A. The patient has relapsing-remitting MS
• B. The patient walks a mile a day for exercise
• C. The patient complains of pain with neck flexion
• D. The patient has an increased serum creatinine level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient has an increased serum creatinine level. Dalfampridine should not be given to patients with impaired renal function as it can worsen their condition. Options A, B, and C are unrelated to the administration of dalfampridine. The fact that the patient has relapsing-remitting MS, walks for exercise, or experiences neck pain does not directly impact the decision to administer dalfampridine. However, an increased serum creatinine level is a contraindication for this medication and requires consultation with the healthcare provider to determine the appropriate course of action.

5. A child is seen in the emergency department for scarlet fever. Which of the following descriptions of scarlet fever is not correct?

• A. Scarlet fever is caused by infection with group A Streptococcus bacteria.
• B. "Strawberry tongue"? is a characteristic sign.
• C. Petechiae occur on the soft palate.
• D. The pharynx is red and swollen.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Petechiae on the soft palate are not a typical finding in scarlet fever. Scarlet fever is caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria, often presenting with a strawberry tongue, red and swollen pharynx, and a sandpaper-like rash. The presence of petechiae on the soft palate is more commonly associated with conditions like rubella rather than scarlet fever. Therefore, this description is not correct in the context of scarlet fever.

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