NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. The physician has decided to perform a thoracentesis based on Mr. R's assessment. Which of the following actions from the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Instruct the client not to talk during the procedure
- B. Assist the client to sit upright or slightly lean forward
- C. Insert a 20-gauge needle just above the 4th intercostal space
- D. Connect the needle to suction to remove fluid that has collected in the pleural space
Correct answer: Instruct the client not to talk during the procedure
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client not to talk during the procedure. This is important to prevent air from being drawn into the pleural space during the thoracentesis. Choice B is incorrect because the client should be sitting upright or slightly leaning forward during the procedure to facilitate access to the pleural space. Choice C is incorrect as the nurse should not perform the thoracentesis procedure, which involves inserting a needle into the pleural space - this is the physician's responsibility. Choice D is incorrect as connecting the needle to suction to remove fluid is not the appropriate procedure for a thoracentesis. Thoracentesis is typically done to remove fluid or air for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes, not to connect to suction to remove fluid that has collected in the pleural space.
2. A client with asthma has low-pitched wheezes present in the final half of exhalation. One hour later, the client has high-pitched wheezes extending throughout exhalation. This change in assessment indicates to the nurse that the client:
- A. Has increased airway obstruction.
- B. Has improved airway obstruction.
- C. Needs to be suctioned.
- D. Exhibits hyperventilation.
Correct answer: Has increased airway obstruction.
Rationale: The change from low-pitched wheezes to high-pitched wheezes indicates a shift from larger to smaller airway obstruction, suggesting increased narrowing of the airways. This change signifies a progression or worsening of the airway obstruction. The absence of evidence of secretions does not support the need for suctioning. Hyperventilation is characterized by rapid and deep breathing, which is not indicated by the information provided in the question.
3. A 65-year-old man is prescribed Flomax (Tamsulosin) for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia. The patient lives in an upstairs apartment. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of Flomax?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Back Pain
- D. Difficulty Urinating
Correct answer: Hypotension
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypotension.' Flomax (Tamsulosin) is known to cause orthostatic hypotension, especially in the elderly, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing up. This side effect can result in dizziness, falls, and injury, especially concerning for a patient living in an upstairs apartment. Tachycardia (increased heart rate) and back pain are less commonly associated with Flomax use, while difficulty urinating is a symptom that Flomax is intended to improve in patients with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia.
4. The nurse assesses a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has been admitted with increasing dyspnea over the last 3 days. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Respirations are 36 breaths/minute.
- B. Anterior-posterior chest ratio is 1:1.
- C. Lung expansion is decreased bilaterally.
- D. Hyperresonance to percussion is present.
Correct answer: Respirations are 36 breaths/minute.
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Respirations are 36 breaths/minute.' An increased respiratory rate is a crucial sign of respiratory distress in patients with COPD, necessitating immediate interventions like oxygen therapy or medications. The other options are common chronic changes seen in COPD patients. Option B, the 'Anterior-posterior chest ratio is 1:1,' is related to the barrel chest commonly seen in COPD due to hyperinflation. Option C, 'Lung expansion is decreased bilaterally,' is expected in COPD due to air trapping. Option D, 'Hyperresonance to percussion is present,' is typical in COPD patients with increased lung volume and air trapping.
5. The parents of an infant who underwent surgical repair of bladder exstrophy ask if the infant will be able to control their bladder as they get older. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Your child will need catheterization until bladder control is gained.
- B. Your child will be able to control their bladder like other children.
- C. You should potty train your child at the same time you normally would.
- D. Your child will not have a sphincter mechanism for the first 3 to 5 years, so urine will drain freely.
Correct answer: Your child will not have a sphincter mechanism for the first 3 to 5 years, so urine will drain freely.
Rationale: Bladder exstrophy is a congenital defect where the infant is born with the bladder located on the outside of the body. Surgical repair typically occurs within the first 1 to 2 days of life. In the following 3 to 5 years post-surgery, urine will drain freely from the urethra due to the absence of a sphincter mechanism. This period allows the bladder to develop capacity as the child grows. Subsequent surgical interventions will be required to establish a functioning sphincter mechanism. Therefore, the correct response is that the child will not have a sphincter mechanism for the first 3 to 5 years, leading to urine draining freely. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the physiological process and management of bladder exstrophy.
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