Nursing Elites

1. A patient asks a nurse administering blood how long red blood cells live in the body. What is the correct response?

• A. The life span of RBC is 45 days
• B. The life span of RBC is 60 days
• C. The life span of RBC is 90 days
• D. The life span of RBC is 120 days

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that red blood cells have a lifespan of 120 days in the body. This allows for efficient oxygen transport throughout the circulatory system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the lifespan of red blood cells is actually 120 days. Understanding the lifespan of red blood cells is crucial in assessing various conditions related to blood cell production and turnover.

2. A patient is suspected to have sustained a spinal cord injury. What best describes the overarching principles used to guide the care for this type of condition?

• A. Immobilize the cervical area to prevent further injury
• B. Monitor the patient's level of consciousness to prevent neurologic deterioration
• C. Help the patient with activities of daily living and provide emotional and physical support to help them adjust to their injury
• D. Facilitate tissue perfusion to the spinal cord while maintaining airway and breathing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to facilitate tissue perfusion to the spinal cord while maintaining airway and breathing. In the acute phase of a spinal cord injury, ensuring proper tissue perfusion to the spinal cord is crucial to prevent further damage. Maintaining airway, breathing, and circulation is essential in guiding the overall care for a patient with a spinal cord injury. Choices A, B, and C, while important in certain aspects of care, are not the overarching principles that guide the immediate management of a suspected spinal cord injury.

3. Diabetic patients are more prone to ____________ than other people without this chronic disorder.

• A. infection
• B. increased oxygen saturation
• C. low fibrinogen
• D. constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diabetic patients are more prone to infection than other people without this chronic disorder. Diabetes weakens the immune system and impairs the body's ability to fight off infections, making individuals with diabetes more susceptible to various types of infections. Increased oxygen saturation, low fibrinogen, and constipation are not directly related to diabetes or the increased infection risk associated with the condition. Increased oxygen saturation is actually a positive health indicator, low fibrinogen levels are not a common issue in diabetes, and constipation is not a primary concern when comparing diabetic patients to others without the condition.

4. A client in the ICU has been intubated and placed on a ventilator. The physician orders synchronous intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV). Which statement best describes the work of this mode of ventilation?

• A. The ventilator delivers a set rate and tidal volume regardless of whether the client is attempting to breathe
• B. The ventilator coordinates delivered breaths with the client's respiratory efforts
• C. The ventilator provides a supplemental breath for every third breath of the client
• D. The ventilator provides breaths during the expiratory phase of the client's respirations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Synchronous intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) is a ventilation mode that coordinates delivered breaths with the client's own respiratory efforts. This mode allows the client to initiate breaths, with the ventilator providing preset breaths at a controlled rate and volume. Option A is incorrect because in SIMV, the ventilator syncs with the client's respiratory efforts. Option C is incorrect as it does not accurately depict the way SIMV works. Option D is also incorrect as SIMV does not specifically provide breaths during the expiratory phase of the client's respirations. Therefore, the correct answer is B, where the ventilator coordinates breath delivery with the client's breathing efforts.

5. A nurse caring for several patients in the cardiac unit is told that one is scheduled for implantation of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator. Which of the following patients is most likely to have this procedure?

• A. A patient admitted for myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage.
• B. A postoperative coronary bypass patient, recovering on schedule.
• C. A patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes.
• D. A patient with a history of atrial tachycardia and fatigue.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes. An automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator is used to deliver an electric shock to the heart to terminate episodes of ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. These patients are at high risk of life-threatening arrhythmias, which may result in syncope. Patients with atrial tachycardia and fatigue (Choice D) would not typically require an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator as their primary issue is related to atrial arrhythmias. Patients who have had a myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage (Choice A) or postoperative coronary bypass patients recovering on schedule (Choice B) are not necessarily at high risk for ventricular arrhythmias and would not be the primary candidates for an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator.

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