Nursing Elites

1. A client with asthma has low-pitched wheezes present in the final half of exhalation. One hour later, the client has high-pitched wheezes extending throughout exhalation. This change in assessment indicates to the nurse that the client:

• A. Has increased airway obstruction.
• B. Has improved airway obstruction.
• C. Needs to be suctioned.
• D. Exhibits hyperventilation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The change from low-pitched wheezes to high-pitched wheezes indicates a shift from larger to smaller airway obstruction, suggesting increased narrowing of the airways. This change signifies a progression or worsening of the airway obstruction. The absence of evidence of secretions does not support the need for suctioning. Hyperventilation is characterized by rapid and deep breathing, which is not indicated by the information provided in the question.

2. After an unimmunized individual is exposed to hepatitis B through a needle-stick injury, which actions will the nurse plan to take (select one that does not apply)?

• A. Administer hepatitis B vaccine.
• B. Test for antibodies to hepatitis B.
• C. Teach about alpha-interferon therapy.
• D. Give hepatitis B immune globulin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the case of exposure to hepatitis B, the nurse should plan to administer hepatitis B vaccine to provide active immunity. Testing for antibodies to hepatitis B is essential to determine the individual's immune status. Giving hepatitis B immune globulin is necessary for passive immunity in cases of exposure. However, teaching about alpha-interferon therapy is not part of the standard management for hepatitis B exposure. Interferon therapy and oral antivirals are typically used in the treatment of chronic hepatitis B infections, not for prophylaxis after exposure.

3. A patient with Meningitis is being treated with Vancomycin intravenously 3 times per day. The nurse notes that the urine output during the last 8 hours was 200mL. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Check the patient's last BUN levels
• B. Ask the patient to increase their fluid intake
• C. Ask the physician to order a diuretic
• D. Notify the physician of this finding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Vancomycin is a nephrotoxic drug and can cause impaired renal perfusion, which would lead to decreased urine output. This is a serious adverse effect that should be promptly reported to the physician. Checking the patient's last BUN levels (Choice A) may provide additional information but does not address the urgency of the situation. Asking the patient to increase fluid intake (Choice B) may not be appropriate if the cause is related to Vancomycin toxicity. Ordering a diuretic (Choice C) without physician evaluation can exacerbate the issue, making notifying the physician (Choice D) the most critical action to take.

4. An 80-year-old patient is admitted with dyspnea, dependent edema, rales, and distended neck veins. As the nurse monitors the patient, he becomes increasingly short of breath and begins to have cardiac dysrhythmias. The most critical intervention for this patient is to:

• A. Ensure his airway is open and unobstructed.
• B. Apply oxygen to maintain his oxygen saturation above 94%.
• C. Administer Dobutamine to increase cardiac output.
• D. Start an IV for monitoring fluid intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient presenting with dyspnea, dependent edema, rales, distended neck veins, and developing cardiac dysrhythmias, the priority intervention is to ensure the airway is open and unobstructed. Maintaining an open airway is crucial for adequate ventilation and oxygenation, especially in a patient showing signs of impending respiratory distress and cardiac compromise. While applying oxygen to maintain oxygen saturation is important, ensuring airway patency takes precedence as it directly impacts the patient's ability to breathe. Administering Dobutamine may be necessary to improve cardiac output; however, addressing the airway first is essential to prevent further respiratory distress and worsening dysrhythmias. Starting an IV for monitoring fluid intake is not the most critical intervention in this scenario compared to ensuring airway patency and oxygenation.

5. What intervention should the nurse implement while a client is having a grand mal seizure?

• A. Open the jaw and place a bite block between the teeth
• B. Try to place the client on his side
• C. Restrain the client to prevent injury
• D. Place pillows around the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a grand mal seizure, the client is at risk of injury due to severe, involuntary muscle spasms and contractions. It is crucial for the nurse to avoid restraining the client or inserting objects into their mouth, as these actions may lead to further harm. Placing the client on their side can help facilitate the drainage of oral secretions and assist in maintaining an open airway, reducing the risk of aspiration. Restraint should be avoided as it can exacerbate muscle contractions and increase the risk of injury. Placing pillows around the client may not provide adequate support or protection during the seizure, making it a less effective intervention compared to positioning the client on their side.

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