NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram
1. A client asks the nurse about including her 2 and 12-year-old sons in the care of their newborn sister. Which of the following is an appropriate initial statement by the nurse?
- A. Focus on your sons' needs during the first days at home.
- B. Tell each child what he can do to help with the baby.
- C. Suggest that your husband spend more time with the boys.
- D. Ask the children what they would like to do for the newborn.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is essential for the nurse to guide the client on the initial steps in involving her 2 and 12-year-old sons in the care of their newborn sister. The most appropriate response is to 'Focus on your sons' needs during the first days at home.' In an expanded family, parents should prioritize reassuring older children that they are loved and as important as the newborn. This response acknowledges the importance of ensuring the well-being and emotional adjustment of the older siblings during the transition period. Choices B, C, and D are less appropriate as they do not directly address the emotional needs and adjustment of the older children during this significant family change.
2. The child with hemolytic-uremic syndrome is anuric and will undergo peritoneal dialysis. Which measure should the nurse implement?
- A. Restrict fluids as prescribed.
- B. Care for the arteriovenous fistula.
- C. Encourage foods high in potassium.
- D. Administer analgesics as prescribed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In hemolytic-uremic syndrome, often associated with bacterial toxins and viruses, acute kidney injury occurs in children, leading to symptoms like anemia, thrombocytopenia, renal injury, and CNS symptoms. For an anuric child with hemolytic-uremic syndrome undergoing peritoneal dialysis, fluid restriction is vital to prevent fluid overload. Pain management is not directly related to hemolytic-uremic syndrome. Foods high in potassium should be limited, not encouraged, due to impaired kidney function. Peritoneal dialysis does not involve an arteriovenous fistula, which is specific to hemodialysis.
3. A patient is admitted to the emergency department with an open stab wound to the left chest. What is the first action that the nurse should take?
- A. Position the patient so that the left chest is dependent
- B. Tape a nonporous dressing on three sides over the chest wound
- C. Cover the sucking chest wound firmly with an occlusive dressing
- D. Keep the head of the patient's bed at no more than 30 degrees elevation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct initial action for a patient with an open stab wound to the chest is to tape a nonporous dressing on three sides over the chest wound. This dressing technique allows air to escape during expiration but prevents air from entering the pleural space during inspiration, helping to prevent tension pneumothorax. Placing the patient so that the left chest is dependent or covering the wound with an occlusive dressing can trap air in the pleural space, leading to tension pneumothorax. Keeping the head of the bed elevated at 30 to 45 degrees helps facilitate breathing and is not the first action to take when managing an open chest wound.
4. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) is reported for a patient with cirrhosis who has scheduled doses of spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix) due. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer both drugs.
- B. Administer the spironolactone.
- C. Withhold the spironolactone and administer the furosemide.
- D. Withhold both drugs until discussed with the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is low (hypokalemia), which can be concerning in a patient with cirrhosis who is already at risk for electrolyte imbalances. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can help increase the patient's potassium level and correct the hypokalemia. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to administer the spironolactone. Withholding the spironolactone could further lower the potassium level. Furosemide, on the other hand, is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss and worsen hypokalemia; hence, it should be withheld until the nurse discusses the situation with the healthcare provider. While the healthcare provider should be informed about the low potassium value, immediate administration of spironolactone is necessary to address the hypokalemia in this patient population.
5. When assessing the respiratory system of an older patient, which finding indicates that the nurse should take immediate action?
- A. Weak cough effort
- B. Barrel-shaped chest
- C. Dry mucous membranes
- D. Bilateral crackles at lung bases
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Bilateral crackles at lung bases indicate a potential acute issue like heart failure. Immediate action is necessary in this situation. The nurse should conduct further assessments such as oxygen saturation and inform the healthcare provider promptly. A barrel-shaped chest and hyperresonance to percussion are typical signs of aging and do not require immediate action. A weak cough effort is common in older patients due to age-related changes, and dry mucous membranes are also expected in older individuals. While these findings may warrant further evaluation, they do not demand immediate action like bilateral crackles at lung bases.
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