Nursing Elites

1. A client asks the nurse about including her 2 and 12-year-old sons in the care of their newborn sister. Which of the following is an appropriate initial statement by the nurse?

• A. Focus on your sons' needs during the first days at home.
• B. Tell each child what he can do to help with the baby.
• C. Suggest that your husband spend more time with the boys.
• D. Ask the children what they would like to do for the newborn.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is essential for the nurse to guide the client on the initial steps in involving her 2 and 12-year-old sons in the care of their newborn sister. The most appropriate response is to 'Focus on your sons' needs during the first days at home.' In an expanded family, parents should prioritize reassuring older children that they are loved and as important as the newborn. This response acknowledges the importance of ensuring the well-being and emotional adjustment of the older siblings during the transition period. Choices B, C, and D are less appropriate as they do not directly address the emotional needs and adjustment of the older children during this significant family change.

2. After 2 months of tuberculosis (TB) treatment with isoniazid (INH), rifampin (Rifadin), pyrazinamide (PZA), and ethambutol, a patient continues to have positive sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli (AFB). Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Teach about drug-resistant TB treatment
• B. Ask the patient whether medications have been taken as directed
• C. Schedule the patient for directly observed therapy three times weekly
• D. Discuss with the healthcare provider the need for the patient to use an injectable antibiotic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The first action should be to determine whether the patient has been compliant with drug therapy because negative sputum smears would be expected if the TB bacillus is susceptible to the medications and if the medications have been taken correctly. Assessment is the first step in the nursing process. Depending on whether the patient has been compliant or not, different medications or directly observed therapy may be indicated. The other options are interventions based on assumptions until an assessment has been completed. Teaching about drug-resistant TB treatment (Choice A) is premature without knowing the current medication compliance status. Scheduling directly observed therapy (Choice C) assumes non-compliance without confirming it first. Discussing the need for an injectable antibiotic (Choice D) is premature and not necessarily indicated without assessing the current medication adherence.

3. In a 24-year-old woman, the term used to define uterine bleeding in which there is no menstruation is:

• A. Oligomenorrhea
• B. Amenorrhea
• C. Menorrhagia
• D. Metrorrhagia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the correct term for the absence of menstrual periods in a woman of childbearing age. It is typically defined as no menstruation for at least three consecutive cycles or six months. Oligomenorrhea refers to infrequent or irregular menstrual periods rather than complete absence. Menorrhagia is characterized by excessive menstrual bleeding, not the absence of menstruation. Metrorrhagia involves irregular, acyclic bleeding between menstrual periods, which is different from the absence of menstruation.

4. A nurse in the emergency department is observing a 4-year-old child for signs of increased intracranial pressure after a fall from a bicycle, resulting in head trauma. Which of the following signs or symptoms would be cause for concern?

• A. Bulging anterior fontanel
• B. Repeated vomiting
• C. Signs of sleepiness at 10 PM
• D. Inability to read short words from a distance of 18 inches

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased intracranial pressure after head trauma can lead to serious complications. Repeated vomiting is a concerning sign as it can indicate stimulation of the vomiting center within the brainstem due to increased pressure. This can be an early indicator of raised intracranial pressure and the need for urgent medical intervention. Bulging anterior fontanel may not be immediately apparent in a 4-year-old child and is more common in infants. Signs of sleepiness at a particular time of day are not specific to increased intracranial pressure. Inability to read short words from a distance of 18 inches may indicate vision problems but is not directly related to intracranial pressure.

5. A patient comes to the emergency department with abdominal pain. Work-up reveals the presence of a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following actions should the nurse expect?

• A. The patient will be admitted to the medicine unit for observation and medication.
• B. The patient will be admitted to the day surgery unit for sclerotherapy.
• C. The patient will be admitted to the surgical unit and resection will be scheduled.
• D. The patient will be discharged home to follow-up with his cardiologist in 24 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm is at significant risk of rupture, which can be life-threatening. The standard treatment for a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm is surgical intervention to prevent rupture. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse to expect is that the patient will be admitted to the surgical unit, and resection will be scheduled. Observation and medication (Choice A) are not sufficient for a rapidly enlarging aneurysm, and sclerotherapy (Choice B) is not typically used for aortic aneurysms. Discharging the patient home (Choice D) would be inappropriate and dangerous given the risk of rupture.

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