Nursing Elites

1. During an assessment of a client with cardiomyopathy, the nurse finds that the systolic blood pressure has decreased from 145 to 110 mm Hg and the heart rate has risen from 72 to 96 beats per minute, and the client complains of periodic dizzy spells. The nurse instructs the client to:

• A. Increase fluids that are high in protein
• B. Restrict fluids
• C. Force fluids and reassess blood pressure
• D. Limit fluids to non-caffeine beverages

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client with cardiomyopathy is exhibiting signs of orthostatic hypotension, which is characterized by a significant drop in systolic blood pressure (>15 mm Hg) and an increase in heart rate (>15%), along with dizziness. These symptoms suggest volume depletion, inadequate vasoconstrictor mechanisms, and autonomic insufficiency. The appropriate nursing intervention in this case is to force fluids and reassess blood pressure to address the underlying issue of volume depletion and improve hemodynamic stability. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing fluids high in protein, restricting fluids, or limiting fluids to non-caffeine beverages are not appropriate actions for a client experiencing orthostatic hypotension and signs of volume depletion.

2. Following mitral valve replacement surgery, a client develops PVCs. The healthcare provider orders a bolus of Lidocaine followed by a continuous Lidocaine infusion at a rate of 2 mg/minute. The IV solution contains 2 grams of Lidocaine in 500 mL of D5W. The infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops/mL. What rate would deliver 4 mg of Lidocaine per minute?

• A. 60 microdrops/minute
• B. 20 microdrops/minute
• C. 30 microdrops/minute
• D. 40 microdrops/minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the rate needed to deliver 4 mg/minute of Lidocaine, first, convert 2 grams to milligrams: 2 grams = 2000 mg. Then, set up a ratio between the total amount of Lidocaine (2000 mg) and the total volume of IV solution (500 mL): 2000 mg / 500 mL = 4 mg / x mL. Solving for x, x = 1 mL. Since the infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops per mL, multiplying by 60 microdrops/mL gives the correct rate of 60 microdrops/minute. This rate ensures the desired 4 mg of Lidocaine is delivered per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided information.

3. Which of the following techniques can help to prevent skin irritation or breakdown around a tracheostomy site?

• A. Manage secretions by providing suction on a regular basis
• B. Cleanse the site daily with a mixture of povidone-iodine and water
• C. Avoid using tube ties to secure the tube
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Excess secretions from the tracheostomy tube can collect near the stomal opening and cause skin breakdown. Management of secretions through regular suctioning will keep the area clean and dry, minimizing skin irritation. Choice B, cleansing the site daily with povidone-iodine and water, is incorrect as it may lead to skin irritation due to the harshness of povidone-iodine. Choice C, avoiding tube ties to secure the tube, is also incorrect as securing the tube is essential for stability. Choice D, 'None of the above,' is incorrect as managing secretions through suctioning is crucial in preventing skin irritation.

4. The mother of a child with hepatitis A tells the home care nurse that she is concerned because the child's jaundice seems worse. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. You need to change the child's diet.
• B. The child probably is infectious again.
• C. The jaundice may worsen before it resolves.
• D. You need to call the primary health care provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best response for the nurse in this situation is to explain to the mother that jaundice may seem to worsen before it eventually gets better. This is a common occurrence in hepatitis A. Option A about changing the child's diet is irrelevant to the concern raised by the mother and not supported by evidence. Option B suggesting the child is infectious again is incorrect and may cause unnecessary alarm as jaundice does not indicate reinfection. Option D, advising the mother to call the primary health care provider, is premature as the nurse can first provide education and reassurance regarding the expected course of jaundice in hepatitis A.

5. A 34-year-old patient with chronic hepatitis C infection has several medications prescribed. Which medication requires further discussion with the healthcare provider before administration?

• A. Ribavirin (Rebetol, Copegus) 600 mg PO bid
• B. Pegylated ?-interferon (PEG-Intron, Pegasys) SQ weekly
• C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 25 mg PO every 4 hours PRN itching
• D. Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine) 50 mg PO every 6 hours PRN nausea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pegylated ?-interferon (PEG-Intron, Pegasys) SQ weekly. Pegylated ?-interferon is typically administered once weekly, not daily. Therefore, this medication requires further discussion with the healthcare provider before administration to ensure the correct dosing frequency. Ribavirin, choice A, is appropriate for chronic hepatitis C treatment. Choices C and D, Diphenhydramine and Dimenhydrinate, are commonly used for symptomatic relief in patients with hepatitis C and do not require further discussion with the healthcare provider in this context.

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