Nursing Elites

1. While assessing a patient in the ICU, a nurse observes signs of a weak pulse, quick respiration, acetone breath, and nausea. Which of the following conditions is most likely occurring?

• A. Hypoglycemic patient
• B. Hyperglycemic patient
• C. Cardiac arrest
• D. End-stage renal failure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is a hyperglycemic patient. The signs described - weak pulse, quick respiration, acetone breath, and nausea - are indicative of hyperglycemia. A hypoglycemic patient would typically present with different signs such as pale skin, sweating, and confusion. Cardiac arrest would manifest with sudden loss of heart function and consciousness, not the signs described. End-stage renal failure would present with symptoms related to kidney dysfunction like edema, fatigue, and changes in urine output, which are not mentioned in the scenario.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who is 28 weeks pregnant and complains of swollen hands and feet. Which symptom below would cause the greatest concern?

• A. Nasal congestion
• B. Hiccups
• C. Blood glucose of 150
• D. Muscle spasms

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is muscle spasms because they can be indicative of a severe condition like preeclampsia, which is a serious complication during pregnancy characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, most often the liver and kidneys. Nasal congestion and hiccups are common discomforts during pregnancy and do not pose a severe risk to the client or fetus. A blood glucose level of 150, while slightly elevated, may not be alarming in a pregnant individual and can be managed through dietary modifications or medication adjustments. Muscle spasms, especially in the context of pregnancy, should be taken seriously and thoroughly assessed to rule out any underlying serious conditions.

3. Which of the following statements should the nurse use to best describe a very low-calorie diet (VLCD) to a client?

• A. "This diet can be used when there is close medical supervision."?
• B. "This is a long-term treatment measure that assists obese people who can't lose weight."?
• C. "The VLCD consists of solid food items that are pureed to facilitate digestion and absorption."?
• D. "A VLCD contains very little protein."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, "This diet can be used when there is close medical supervision."? Very low-calorie diets (VLCDs) are used in the clinical treatment of obesity under close medical supervision. The diet is low in calories, high in quality protein, and has a minimum of carbohydrates to spare protein and prevent ketosis. Choice B is incorrect because VLCDs are typically short-term interventions. Choice C is incorrect because VLCDs usually consist of nutritionally complete liquid formulations, not solid food items that are pureed. Choice D is incorrect because VLCDs actually contain a high quality of protein, although the overall caloric content is very low.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with full-thickness burns to the left arm and trunk. What is the priority for this client?

• A. Pain management
• B. Airway assessment
• C. Fluid volume status monitoring
• D. Risk for infection prevention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! With full-thickness burns, there is a significant risk of fluid loss through the burn wound and fluid shift, leading to hypovolemia and shock. Monitoring and maintaining the client's fluid volume status is crucial to prevent complications like hypovolemic shock. Pain management (Option A) is essential but not the priority in this situation. While airway assessment (Option B) is crucial, it is typically assessed first in clients with respiratory distress. Preventing infection (Option D) is important but managing fluid volume status takes precedence in the initial care of a client with full-thickness burns.

5. A 28-year-old male has a diagnosis of AIDS. The patient has had a two-year history of AIDS. The most likely cognitive deficits include which of the following?

• A. Disorientation
• B. Sensory changes
• C. Inability to produce sound
• D. Hearing deficits

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In individuals with AIDS, cognitive deficits commonly manifest as confusion and disorientation, making choice A, 'Disorientation,' the correct answer. Sensory changes (choice B) and hearing deficits (choice D) are more related to sensory processing rather than cognitive impairment. 'Inability to produce sound' (choice C) is more indicative of a speech or language deficit rather than a cognitive impairment typically seen in AIDS patients.

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