Nursing Elites

1. While working the 11 p.m. to 7 a.m. shift at the long-term care unit, the nurse gathers the nursing staff to listen to the 3 to 11 p.m. intershift report. The nurse notes that a staff member has an odor of alcohol on her breath, slurred speech, and an unsteady gait, suspecting alcohol intoxication. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Contact the nursing supervisor.
• B. Tell the staff member that she is not allowed to administer medications.
• C. Ask the staff member how much alcohol she has consumed.
• D. Ask the staff member to rest in the nurses' lounge until the effects of the alcohol wear off.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a staff member reports to work showing signs of alcohol intoxication, the nurse should objectively note the symptoms and ask a second person to confirm these observations. It is crucial to contact the nursing supervisor immediately. An odor of alcohol, slurred speech, unsteady gait, and errors in judgment are indicators of intoxication, posing a risk to client safety. The staff member should be removed from the client care area. Detailed documentation of the incident is essential, including observations, actions taken, future plans, and the staff member's signature and date on the recorded incident memo. If the staff member refuses to sign, this should be noted by the nurse and a witness. Asking the staff member to rest in the nurses' lounge or restricting medication administration does not ensure client safety, as the staff member could still jeopardize it. Inquiring about the amount of alcohol consumed is confrontational and not relevant to the immediate need of ensuring safety.

2. When managing nausea related to Morphine epidural analgesia, the nurse should administer:

• A. Indomethacin
• B. Codeine
• C. Ibuprofen
• D. Compazine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When managing nausea related to Morphine epidural analgesia, Compazine is the appropriate medication to administer. Compazine, also known as prochlorperazine, is commonly used to treat nausea and vomiting. It works by affecting certain chemicals in the brain that trigger nausea and vomiting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Indomethacin, Codeine, and Ibuprofen are not typically used to manage nausea associated with Morphine epidural analgesia.

3. Which of these statements is true regarding advance directives?

• A. They must be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years in order to remain valid.
• B. An advance directive is legally valid in every state, regardless of the state it was created in.
• C. A physician must determine when a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.
• D. They cannot be honored by EMTs (emergency medical technicians) unless signed by a doctor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement is that advance directives cannot be honored by EMTs unless they are signed by a doctor. EMTs are required to provide emergency care to a client, irrespective of their advance directive status, unless the directive has been signed by a doctor. When a client is brought to the hospital, physicians will assess the client and implement the advance directive if necessary. Advance directives do not need to be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years to remain valid; they remain in effect until changed. While advance directives are legally valid in most states, some states may not honor those created in other states, so it's advisable to check the new state's policies if a client moves. Additionally, it typically requires two physicians, not just one, to determine if a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.

4. The nurse manager of a quality improvement program asks a nurse in the neurological unit to conduct a retrospective audit. Which action should the auditing nurse plan to perform in this type of audit?

• A. Checking the crash cart to ensure that all needed supplies are readily available in case of an emergency
• B. Checking the documentation written by a new nursing graduate on her assigned clients at the end of the shift
• C. Reviewing neurological assessment checklists for all clients on the unit to ensure that these assessments are being conducted as prescribed
• D. Obtaining the assigned medical record from the hospital's medical record room to review documentation made during a client's hospital stay

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quality improvement, also known as performance improvement, focuses on processes contributing to client safety and care outcomes. Retrospective audits involve reviewing medical records after discharge for compliance with standards. Concurrent audits assess staff compliance during a client's stay. Therefore, obtaining the medical record from the hospital's record room for review is crucial in a retrospective audit. Options A, B, and C are more suited for concurrent audits as they involve real-time assessment during a client's stay.

5. What is a true statement about post-discharge follow-up?

• A. The nurse should ensure the client is educated on their discharge instructions.
• B. If the client seems stable, they likely do not need a follow-up visit.
• C. The physician is responsible for ensuring the client has their prescriptions upon discharge.
• D. If the client has questions, the nurse should address them before discharge.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is that the nurse should ensure the client is educated on their discharge instructions. This is crucial to promote continuity of care and prevent adverse events. The responsibility of educating the client falls on the nurse, not assuming stability without a follow-up visit. While the physician may prescribe medications, it is the nurse's responsibility to ensure the client has them before discharge. Instructing the client to bring up questions at a follow-up appointment is not ideal; all questions should be addressed before discharge to ensure the client's understanding and compliance.

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