a nurse at the long term care unit on the 11 pm to 7 am shift is gathering the nursing staff together to listen to the 3 to 11 pm intershift report th
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NCLEX-PN

Nclex PN Questions and Answers

1. While working the 11 p.m. to 7 a.m. shift at the long-term care unit, the nurse gathers the nursing staff to listen to the 3 to 11 p.m. intershift report. The nurse notes that a staff member has an odor of alcohol on her breath, slurred speech, and an unsteady gait, suspecting alcohol intoxication. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a staff member reports to work showing signs of alcohol intoxication, the nurse should objectively note the symptoms and ask a second person to confirm these observations. It is crucial to contact the nursing supervisor immediately. An odor of alcohol, slurred speech, unsteady gait, and errors in judgment are indicators of intoxication, posing a risk to client safety. The staff member should be removed from the client care area. Detailed documentation of the incident is essential, including observations, actions taken, future plans, and the staff member's signature and date on the recorded incident memo. If the staff member refuses to sign, this should be noted by the nurse and a witness. Asking the staff member to rest in the nurses' lounge or restricting medication administration does not ensure client safety, as the staff member could still jeopardize it. Inquiring about the amount of alcohol consumed is confrontational and not relevant to the immediate need of ensuring safety.

2. The client has a new prosthetic hip, and the nurse is repositioning them. Which position should be avoided to prevent injury to the new prosthetic hip?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'adduction of the hip.' When a client has a new prosthetic hip, adduction (movement of the leg toward the midline of the body) should be avoided to prevent injury to the new prosthetic hip. Abduction (movement of the leg away from the midline) is typically allowed and may even be encouraged. Flexing the hip at certain degrees is acceptable, but adduction should be avoided to prevent complications or dislocation of the prosthetic hip. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not pose a direct risk to the new prosthetic hip compared to adduction.

3. Which of the following tests is commonly performed on newborns with jaundice?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: bilirubin. A high bilirubin level is found in newborns with hepatic immaturity, leading to jaundice. Testing bilirubin levels is crucial in diagnosing and monitoring jaundice in newborns. Choices A, B, and D (blood urea nitrogen, magnesium, and prolactin) are not commonly performed tests for evaluating jaundice in newborns. Blood urea nitrogen is a measure of kidney function, magnesium levels are usually checked in metabolic disorders, and prolactin is a hormone related to lactation, none of which are directly relevant to assessing jaundice in newborns.

4. Why is padding on a restraint helpful?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Padding on a restraint helps distribute pressure to prevent bony prominences from bearing excessive pressure when a client pulls against the restraints. This is crucial to avoid tissue damage caused by ischemia. The correct answer focuses on the physiological benefit of padding in reducing pressure on vulnerable areas to prevent harm. Choice B is incorrect as the primary purpose of padding is not emotional comfort but preventing physical harm. Choice C is incorrect as while padding can indirectly help prevent infection and wounds by reducing pressure, its primary function is pressure distribution. Choice D is incorrect as the main purpose of padding is not to keep the restraints in place but to protect the client's skin and tissues from pressure-related injuries.

5. Which isolation procedure will be followed for secretions and blood?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Standard Precautions. Standard precautions are taken in all situations for all clients and involve all body secretions except sweat. They are designed to reduce the rate of transmission of microbes from one host to another or one source to another. Respiratory Isolation (Choice A) is used for diseases transmitted by airborne particles, not secretions and blood. Contact Isolation (Choice C) is for clients known or suspected to be infected with microorganisms that can be transmitted by direct or indirect contact. Droplet Isolation (Choice D) is used for diseases transmitted by large respiratory droplets expelled during coughing, sneezing, talking, or procedures.

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