Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements from a client may indicate that they are at a higher risk for a fall?

• A. "I would like to get out of bed but would like to put on my non-skid socks first."?
• B. "Can you make sure the two bedrails are raised before leaving the room?"?
• C. "I think I'm ready to walk a longer distance with the cane today."?
• D. "I need to get out of bed to go to the bathroom now. I cannot find my glasses but cannot wait."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'I need to get out of bed to go to the bathroom now. I cannot find my glasses but cannot wait.' This statement indicates that the client is in a hurry and unable to find their glasses, which could increase the risk of a fall due to impaired vision. Choice A about putting on non-skid socks shows the client's awareness of fall prevention, reducing the risk. Choice B demonstrates the client's request for bedrails to be raised, which is a safety measure, reducing the risk as well. Choice C suggests the client's readiness to walk a longer distance with a cane, indicating progress in mobility but not necessarily a higher fall risk.

2. Why is monitoring Serum Vancomycin levels important?

• A. to assess renal function
• B. to determine therapeutic range
• C. to measure trough levels
• D. to evaluate antibiotic resistance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring Serum Vancomycin levels is essential to determine the drug's therapeutic range, ensuring optimal effectiveness while avoiding toxicity. Peak levels indicate the drug's highest concentration, while trough levels represent the lowest concentration before the next dose. Assessing renal function is typically done using creatinine, BUN, or creatinine clearance tests, not Serum Vancomycin levels. Evaluating antibiotic resistance involves sensitivity testing, not monitoring Vancomycin levels. Therefore, the correct answer is to determine the therapeutic range.

3. A nurse is reading the nurse practice act for the state in which she is employed. The nurse uses the information in this act for which purpose?

• A. To understand hospital and long-term care facility policies
• B. To know the scope of practice for nurses
• C. To identify health care policies in her state
• D. To be aware of the role of the licensed nurse

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'To be aware of the role of the licensed nurse.' Nurse practice acts outline the scope of practice for nurses, defining what constitutes nursing practice and the role of licensed nurses. Choice A is incorrect because hospital and long-term care facility policies are institution-specific and not typically covered in the nurse practice act. Choice B is incorrect as the scope of practice for nurses is a part of the nurse practice act, but it's not the sole purpose for a nurse to refer to it. Choice C is incorrect as health care policies in a state are governed by other legislative acts, not the nurse practice act.

4. Why would a nurse employed at a hospital be asked by a nurse manager to review the organizational chart?

• A. To be aware of the geographic area that the organization serves
• B. To be familiar with the organization's line of authority
• C. To understand the organization's reason for existence
• D. To be familiar with the beliefs and values of the organization

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'To be familiar with the organization's line of authority.' Organizational charts provide a visual representation of the chain of command, reporting relationships, and structure within an organization. This helps employees understand who they report to, who reports to them, and the overall hierarchy. Choice A is incorrect because understanding the geographic area served is more about the organization's scope, not depicted in an organizational chart. Choice C is incorrect as it relates to the organization's reason for existence, usually found in its mission statement. Choice D is incorrect as beliefs and values are linked to the organization's culture, not typically shown in an organizational chart.

5. How far should the enema tube be inserted for a client to have a flatus-reducing enema?

• A. 4 inches.
• B. 6 inches.
• C. 2 inches.
• D. 8 inches.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to insert the enema tube 4 inches. Enema tubing must be passed beyond the internal sphincter, which is typically around 4 inches in an adult. Inserting the tube only 2 inches is not far enough to reach this point. On the other hand, inserting the tube 6 or 8 inches is too far and might cause trauma to the bowel, which is unnecessary for a flatus-reducing enema. Therefore, the correct insertion depth of the enema tube is crucial to ensure effectiveness and safety in providing the intended treatment.

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