NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram
1. A client receiving drug therapy with furosemide and digitalis requires careful observation and care. In planning care for this client, the nurse should recognize that which of the following electrolyte imbalances is most likely to occur?
- A. hyperkalemia
- B. hypernatremia
- C. hypokalemia
- D. hypomagnesemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client is receiving drug therapy with furosemide and digitalis, the nurse should anticipate the development of hypokalemia due to the potassium-wasting effects of furosemide. Hypokalemia can potentiate digitalis toxicity. While hyperkalemia is a concern with some medications, it is not typically associated with furosemide and digitalis. Furosemide can lead to hyponatremia, not hypernatremia, due to its diuretic effect. Hypomagnesemia, though a possible imbalance, is not the most likely to occur in this scenario as furosemide and digitalis are more commonly associated with hypokalemia.
2. What could be a possible cause for the symptoms experienced by the client in Question 28?
- A. iron deficiency
- B. folate deficiency
- C. peptic ulcer
- D. iron overload
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Given the client's symptoms of fatigue, shortness of breath, and lightheadedness, along with her gender and fad dieting, the most likely cause is iron deficiency. Iron deficiency commonly presents with these symptoms due to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood. Folate deficiency would typically present with different symptoms such as mouth sores and changes in skin, not fitting the client's presentation. Peptic ulcer would manifest with abdominal pain, not primarily with the symptoms described. Iron overload would present with symptoms such as joint pain and fatigue, which are not consistent with the client's presentation.
3. A nurse is assessing an 18-year-old female who has recently suffered a TBI. The nurse notes a slower pulse and impaired respiration. The nurse should report these findings immediately to the physician due to the possibility the patient is experiencing which of the following conditions?
- A. Increased intracranial pressure
- B. Increased function of cranial nerve X
- C. Sympathetic response to activity
- D. Meningitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should report the slower pulse and impaired respiration to the physician immediately as they are indicative of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) following a traumatic brain injury (TBI). These signs suggest that there may be a rise in pressure within the skull, which can be a life-threatening condition requiring urgent intervention. Options B and C are unlikely in this scenario as they do not correlate with the symptoms presented. Meningitis (Option D) typically presents with different signs and symptoms, such as fever, headache, and neck stiffness, which are not described in the patient's case.
4. Levothyroxine (Synthroid) is the drug of choice for thyroid replacement therapy in clients with hypothyroidism because:
- A. it is chemically stable, nonallergenic, and can be administered orally once a day.
- B. it is available in a wide range of concentrations to meet individual client requirements.
- C. it is a prodrug of T3.
- D. it has a long half-life.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Levothyroxine (Synthroid) is the preferred medication for hypothyroidism due to its chemical stability, nonallergenic properties, and convenient once-daily oral administration. It is safe and effective with minimal side effects when appropriately dosed. Choice B is incorrect because while Levothyroxine is available in various concentrations, it is not the reason it is the drug of choice; the primary reason is its stability and nonallergenic nature. Choice C is wrong as Levothyroxine (T4) is not a prodrug of T3; it is converted to T3 in the body. Option D is inaccurate because Levothyroxine has a long half-life (around 7 days), enabling once-daily dosing, as opposed to a short half-life.
5. When a client informs the nurse that he is experiencing hypoglycemia, the nurse provides immediate intervention by providing:
- A. one commercially prepared glucose tablet
- B. two hard candies
- C. 4-6 ounces of fruit juice
- D. 2-3 teaspoons of honey
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct immediate intervention for hypoglycemia is to provide 10-15 grams of fast-acting simple carbohydrates orally if the client is conscious and able to swallow. This can be achieved by giving 2-3 teaspoons of honey. Honey is a quick source of simple sugars that can rapidly raise blood glucose levels. Commercially prepared glucose tablets or 4-6 ounces of fruit juice are also appropriate options. However, adding sugar to fruit juice is unnecessary as the natural fruit sugar in juice already provides enough simple carbohydrates to raise blood glucose levels. Hard candies are not the best choice for immediate intervention in hypoglycemia as they may not provide a sufficient amount of fast-acting carbohydrates needed to raise blood sugar levels quickly.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access