a client has been taking alprazolam xanax for four years to manage anxiety the client reports taking 05 mg four times a day which statement indicates
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

PN Nclex Questions 2024

1. A client has been taking alprazolam (Xanax) for four years to manage anxiety. The client reports taking 0.5 mg four times a day. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching about discontinuing the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, and then one pill for one week. This statement indicates a gradual tapering schedule, which is crucial when discontinuing alprazolam (Xanax) to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol should be avoided while tapering off benzodiazepines due to the increased risk of respiratory depression. Choice B is incorrect because abruptly stopping alprazolam can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while drowsiness can be a side effect of alprazolam, it is not the primary concern when discontinuing the medication; preventing withdrawal symptoms is the priority.

2. The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with an infection needs both antibiotics as soon as possible. However, the pH of ampicillin is 8-10, and the pH of gentamicin is 3-5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent interaction. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse, not the physician or pharmacy, should determine the correct administration sequence. Consulting with the pharmacist is appropriate if uncertain. Choice D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow the treatment of the client's infection, as both antibiotics are needed promptly to address the infection effectively. Therefore, the correct action is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them to prevent any potential interactions.

3. When planning care of a client who has been diagnosed with Amphetamine Abuse, the nurse should use the knowledge that:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that amphetamines increase energy by increasing dopamine levels at neural synapses. Amphetamines cause the release of norepinephrine and dopamine from storage vesicles into the synapse, leading to increased stimulation. It is important to note that clear patterns of tolerance and withdrawal have not been described with amphetamines. Choice B is incorrect as prolonged or excessive use of amphetamines can lead to psychosis, indicating a potential for addiction. Choice C is incorrect as the duration of the effects of amphetamines is typically longer than 2-4 hours. Choice D is incorrect as addiction to amphetamines is not rare; in fact, drug cravings are common and can lead to relapse, indicating a significant risk of addiction.

4. What is the profile of an individual who engages in domestic violence?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Individuals who engage in domestic violence come from various backgrounds and cannot be stereotyped based on demographic factors like culture, income, or race. Research shows that perpetrators of domestic abuse can be found in any walk of life, regardless of their race, income group, or profession. It is important to note that the majority of domestic violence cases involve male perpetrators and female victims, but the profile of the abuser is not limited to specific demographic features. Therefore, the correct answer is that individuals who engage in domestic violence can come from any walk of life, race, income group, or profession. Choices A and B are incorrect as they wrongly associate domestic violence with specific cultural or income groups. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence to support the claim that being disallowed to compete as a child leads to domestic violence.

5. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.

Similar Questions

In performing a psychosocial assessment, the nurse begins by asking questions that encourage the client to describe problematic behaviors and situations. The next step is to elicit the client's:
While walking in the hallway of an acute care unit of the hospital, the nurse overhears the change of shift report. What should the nurse do?
Activities of effective supervisors can be task-related or people-related activities. An example of a task-related supervisory activity is:
Which of the following describes the stages of domestic violence in an intimate relationship?
The nurse is making initial rounds on a client with a C5 fracture and crutch field tongs. Which equipment should be kept at the bedside?

Access More Features

NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses