Nursing Elites

1. A 45-year-old client with type I diabetes is in need of support services upon discharge from a skilled rehabilitation unit. Which of the following services is an example of a skilled support service?

• A. shopping for groceries
• B. house cleaning
• C. transportation to physician's visits
• D. medication instruction

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is medication instruction. This is a skilled service that requires specialized knowledge and training to provide proper guidance on medication management for a client with type I diabetes. Grocery shopping, house cleaning, and transportation services are considered unskilled services as they are typically offered by volunteer or fee-for-service agencies and do not require specialized medical expertise. Medication instruction, on the other hand, involves educating the client on how to properly take medications, understand potential side effects, and manage their medication regimen effectively, which necessitates a high level of expertise and training.

2. A client has just returned from surgery where a femoral-popliteal bypass was performed. The nurse has assessed the client and is unable to feel a pulse at either the dorsalis pedis or the posterior tibial sites of the left foot. The foot feels warm, and the color is pink. What action should the nurse perform next to prevent ischemia?

• A. Notify the physician immediately
• B. Obtain a Doppler device to check for pulses, and notify the physician if they are still absent
• C. Wait 30 minutes and recheck the pulses
• D. Document the finding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should immediately obtain a Doppler device and recheck the pulses. The dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses can be difficult to assess and might need to be verified with a Doppler device. Since the client just had surgery with a risk of arterial insufficiency, close monitoring is crucial. If pulses are not palpable, it indicates an emergent situation requiring immediate physician notification. Waiting 30 minutes before reassessment could lead to foot ischemia. While documenting findings is essential, it should follow pulse confirmation or necessary interventions to ensure the client's foot viability.

3. If Ms. Barrett's distance vision is 20/30, which of the following statements is true?

• A. The client can read from 20' what a person with normal vision can read at 30'.
• B. The client can read from 30' what a person with normal vision can read at 20'.
• C. The client can read the entire chart from 30'.
• D. The client can read the chart from 20' with the left eye and from 30' with the right eye.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When Ms. Barrett's distance vision is measured as 20/30, it means that she can read from 20 feet away what a person with normal vision can read at 30 feet. The numerator (20) represents the distance in feet between the chart and the client, while the denominator (30) indicates the distance at which a normal eye can read the chart. In this case, Ms. Barrett's vision is slightly worse than normal, as she needs to be closer to the chart to read it clearly. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Choice B reverses the distances, Choice C assumes the client can read the entire chart from 30 feet, and Choice D introduces information not related to the 20/30 measurement.

4. When meeting nurses for the first time, a new nurse manager makes eye contact, smiles, initiates conversation about their previous work experience, and encourages active participation. This behavior is an example of

• A. aggressiveness
• B. passive aggressiveness
• C. passiveness
• D. assertiveness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse manager is demonstrating assertive behavior by confidently engaging with the nurses through eye contact, smiling, and encouraging participation. This behavior shows a balance between expressing her own opinions and respecting others. Aggressive behavior would involve dominating or embarrassing others, while passive behavior is characterized by being timid or nervous. Passive-aggressive behavior is indirect and manipulative, which is not demonstrated in this scenario.

5. An amniocentesis is scheduled for a pregnant client in the third trimester. The nurse informs the client that the most common indication for amniocentesis during the third trimester is for which reason?

• A. Determination of whether alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is present in the amniotic fluid
• B. Checking the amniotic fluid for intrauterine infection
• C. Determination of fetal lung maturity
• D. Checking the fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most common indication for amniocentesis in the third trimester is the determination of fetal lung maturity. This assessment is essential to evaluate the fetus's readiness for extrauterine life. Checking for alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid is more commonly associated with midtrimester amniocentesis to identify chromosomal abnormalities. Assessing for intrauterine infection is not a primary reason for amniocentesis in the third trimester. While checking fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities is a common indication for midtrimester amniocentesis, it is not the most common indication in the third trimester.

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