Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following tasks are appropriate for an LPN to perform?

• A. Adjusting the cervical traction device of a 68-year-old client as instructed by the charge nurse.
• B. performing operation on a woman in labour
• C. Assessing a 36-year-old man newly admitted for chest pain.
• D. Obtaining an occult blood sample from a 16-year-old client with ulcerative colitis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tasks appropriate for an LPN to perform include teaching, obtaining samples, and documenting. LPNs can educate clients on care practices, such as teaching a new mother how to care for her baby. Obtaining samples, like an occult blood sample, falls within the scope of an LPN's responsibilities. Assessments, especially initial assessments, should be conducted by a registered nurse or physician, making option C incorrect. Adjusting devices like a cervical traction device should be done based on direct orders from prescribing providers, not charge nurses, making option A inappropriate for an LPN's role.

2. How far should the enema tube be inserted for a client to have a flatus-reducing enema?

• A. 4 inches.
• B. 6 inches.
• C. 2 inches.
• D. 8 inches.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to insert the enema tube 4 inches. Enema tubing must be passed beyond the internal sphincter, which is typically around 4 inches in an adult. Inserting the tube only 2 inches is not far enough to reach this point. On the other hand, inserting the tube 6 or 8 inches is too far and might cause trauma to the bowel, which is unnecessary for a flatus-reducing enema. Therefore, the correct insertion depth of the enema tube is crucial to ensure effectiveness and safety in providing the intended treatment.

3. The client has a new prosthetic hip, and the nurse is repositioning them. Which position should be avoided to prevent injury to the new prosthetic hip?

• A. abduction of the hip
• B. adduction of the hip
• C. flexing the hip at 80° flexion
• D. flexing the hip at 90°

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'adduction of the hip.' When a client has a new prosthetic hip, adduction (movement of the leg toward the midline of the body) should be avoided to prevent injury to the new prosthetic hip. Abduction (movement of the leg away from the midline) is typically allowed and may even be encouraged. Flexing the hip at certain degrees is acceptable, but adduction should be avoided to prevent complications or dislocation of the prosthetic hip. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not pose a direct risk to the new prosthetic hip compared to adduction.

4. A nurse who recently learned she is pregnant has just received client assignments for the day. Which client assignment should the nurse question as being inappropriate?

• A. A client with metastatic cancer who is receiving a continuous infusion of intravenous morphine sulfate
• B. A client with a solid-sealed cervical radiation implant
• C. A client with diarrhea for whom enteric precautions are in effect
• D. A client for whom contact precautions have been implemented and who requires frequent wound irrigations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is a client with a solid-sealed cervical radiation implant. Brachytherapy involves the implantation of a sealed radiation source within the targeted tumor tissue. A client with such an implant emits radiation as long as it is in place. Pregnant nurses should not care for clients with solid-sealed radiation implants due to the potential radiation exposure risk to the fetus. Clients under enteric precautions due to diarrhea, receiving a continuous infusion of intravenous morphine sulfate for cancer pain, or requiring contact precautions and frequent wound irrigations do not pose a risk to pregnant nurses and are appropriate assignments for them. Therefore, the nurse should question the assignment involving the client with the solid-sealed cervical radiation implant as it poses a risk to the fetus.

5. Under what circumstances can an individual receive medical care without giving informed consent?

• A. when the durable power of attorney for health care is not available
• B. in an emergency, life-or-death situation
• C. when the physician is not available for discussion with the client
• D. when they (clients) are not able to speak for themselves

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An individual may receive medical care without giving informed consent in an emergency, life-or-death situation. This exception allows healthcare providers to provide immediate treatment to save a person's life or prevent serious harm when time is of the essence. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because in all other situations, informed consent is required. The durable power of attorney for health care should be involved if available, the physician should have a discussion with the client in non-life-threatening situations, and in cases where clients are unable to speak for themselves, their designated representative or responsible party should be involved in the consent process.

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