which of the following statements by a client indicates adequate understanding of preparation for a lipoprotein fractionation test
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet

1. Which of the following statements by a client indicates adequate understanding of preparation for a lipoprotein fractionation test?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement regarding preparation for a lipoprotein fractionation test is that the client cannot eat for 12 hours before the test. It is important to note that the client can drink an unrestricted amount of water. Limiting fluid intake is not necessary for this test. There is no need for the client to ingest a lipid solution as part of the preparation. Therefore, the other choices are incorrect.

2. The healthcare professional seeks to assess the renal function of an elderly client who is about to receive a nephrotoxic medication. Which of the following labs provides the best indicator for renal function?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the context of an elderly client, assessing renal function before administering a nephrotoxic medication is crucial. While urinalysis and blood urea nitrogen provide valuable information on hydration status and overall health clues, they are not specific indicators of renal function. The chemistry of electrolytes may show abnormalities in renal failure, but it does not directly measure the kidneys' ability to eliminate waste. Creatinine clearance, on the other hand, is considered the best indicator for renal function in the elderly. This test accounts for decreases in lean body mass that can affect blood creatinine levels and is widely used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate, reflecting the kidneys' filtration capability. Therefore, creatinine clearance is the most appropriate lab test to assess renal function in this scenario.

3. Which of the following represents a normal serum potassium level?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 4.0 mEq/L. Normal serum potassium levels typically range from 3.5-5.5 mEq/L. Choice A (1.5 mEq/L) is below the normal range, Choice B (3.0 mEq/L) is also below the normal range, and Choice D (6.0 mEq/L) is above the normal range. Therefore, the only option within the normal range is Choice C (4.0 mEq/L).

4. The client is being taught about the use of Rifampin for prophylaxis following exposure to meningitis. What change in bodily functions should the client be informed about?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rifampin has the unusual effect of turning body fluids an orange color. Soft contact lenses might become permanently stained. Clients should be taught about these side effects to avoid unnecessary concern. Option A is incorrect as Rifampin does not cause the urine to turn blue. Option B is incorrect as the client is not infectious to others due to taking Rifampin for prophylaxis. Option D is incorrect as Rifampin does not cause the skin to take on a crimson glow.

5. A nurse is taking a morning break with the unit secretary in the nurses' lounge. The unit secretary says to the nurse, 'I read in Mr. Gage's medical record that he has gonorrhea.' How should the nurse respond to the secretary?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client's medical condition is confidential and should never be discussed with anyone other than the client and the client's healthcare provider. Therefore, the nurse must tell the unit secretary that the client's condition is not to be discussed. Choices A and B confirm the client's disease, which is inappropriate as it breaches patient confidentiality. Choice D promotes further discussion of the client's condition, which is also inappropriate. The correct response is to firmly state, 'We can't discuss a client's medical condition,' to uphold patient privacy and confidentiality.

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