NCLEX-PN
Best NCLEX Next Gen Prep
1. Which condition is associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C?
- A. rickets
- B. marasmus
- C. kwashiorkor
- D. scurvy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Scurvy is indeed associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C. Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy, which is characterized by weakness, anemia, gum disease, and skin hemorrhages. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because rickets is caused by vitamin D deficiency, marasmus is due to severe malnutrition leading to wasting, and kwashiorkor is a form of severe protein-energy malnutrition.
2. When an elder client asks the nurse whether he will be capable of sexual activity in old age, the best response by the nurse is:
- A. "Elder adults are psychologically and physically capable of engaging in sexual activity regardless of age-related changes."?
- B. "If you haven't been sexually active throughout your life, you will not be able to participate in sexual activity in old age."?
- C. "When intercourse isn't possible, many of your sexual needs can be met through intimacy and touch."?
- D. "You might find it takes longer for you to achieve an erection, but you can maintain it for a longer time."?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best response for the nurse when an elder client asks about capability for sexual activity in old age is to provide reassurance and open communication. Choice A is the correct answer as it acknowledges that elder adults can engage in sexual activity both physically and psychologically despite age-related changes. This response encourages further discussion and addresses the client's concerns. Choices B, C, and D contain some truths but are not the most therapeutic responses. Choice B implies that past sexual activity is a prerequisite for sexual activity in old age, which is not entirely accurate as intimacy can be experienced in various ways. Choice C, while true about alternative ways to meet sexual needs, does not directly address the client's question about sexual activity. Choice D focuses on the physiological aspect of sexual function, which is important but not the most appropriate initial response to the client's query.
3. A female client asks a nurse about the advantages of using a female condom. The nurse discusses which advantage with the client?
- A. That it offers protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs)
- B. That it cannot be used along with a male condom
- C. That it does not have to be discarded after use and can be used several times before a new one must be obtained
- D. That it is 100% effective in preventing pregnancy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is that the female condom offers protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Unlike the male condom, the female condom is a loose-fitting tubular polyurethane pouch that is anchored over the labia and cervix. It is used once and then discarded, making choice C incorrect. Female and male condoms should not be used together, so choice B is incorrect. Additionally, no contraceptive method is 100% effective in preventing pregnancy, making choice D incorrect.
4. The LPN on shift notices a client coming into the clinic with bruises on his arm. The client seems very afraid and doesn't speak much, which concerns the nurse because these are signs of physical abuse. The nurse should ____.
- A. use therapeutic communication to talk to the client and offer support while reporting the findings to the appropriate authorities based on the state requirements and protocols
- B. report the findings to the appropriate authorities based on the state requirements and protocols
- C. ignore the bruises, as this is not why the client is being treated and is not appropriate for the nurse to address
- D. report the suspected abuse to another nurse and collaborate on how to handle it
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In cases of suspected abuse, healthcare providers have a legal and ethical obligation to report such incidents to the relevant authorities. This not only ensures the safety and well-being of the client but also helps in preventing further harm. Option A is incorrect as attempting to gather evidence of abuse may interfere with the official investigation and is not the nurse's role. Offering support is crucial, but the priority is to report the findings to the appropriate authorities. Option C is incorrect as ignoring signs of abuse goes against the duty of a healthcare provider to protect their clients. Option D is incorrect as reporting suspected abuse to other nurses without involving the appropriate authorities may delay necessary actions and intervention.
5. A paraplegic client is in the hospital to be treated for an electrolyte imbalance. Which level of care is the client currently receiving?
- A. primary prevention
- B. secondary prevention
- C. tertiary prevention
- D. health promotion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. The client is currently receiving secondary prevention care. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection of disease, prompt intervention, and health maintenance for clients experiencing health problems. In this case, the electrolyte imbalance is a health problem that requires treatment to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because primary prevention is focused on health promotion and specific protections against illness before it occurs, tertiary prevention is aimed at helping rehabilitate clients after the illness is diagnosed and treated, and health promotion is a broader concept that includes activities aimed at improving overall health and well-being rather than targeting a specific health problem like an electrolyte imbalance.
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